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Question 6521

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 7-year-old child presents with torticollis and severe neck stiffness one week after undergoing a routine tonsillectomy. The child holds their head tilted to the right and rotated to the left. Cervical spine radiographs and a subsequent CT scan demonstrate anterior displacement and rotation of the atlas on the axis without evidence of trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Jefferson fracture
. Grisel's syndrome
. Klippel-Feil syndrome
. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
. Retropharyngeal abscess

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grisel's syndrome


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation associated with inflammatory conditions of the head and neck, such as tonsillitis or post-tonsillectomy. Regional inflammation leads to hyperemia and subsequent laxity of the transverse ligament.

Question 6522

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with pre-existing multi-level cervical spondylosis sustains a hyperextension injury to his neck during a fall. He presents with severe motor weakness in his upper extremities, but retains relatively preserved functional motor strength in his lower extremities. Which spinal cord tract's anatomical somatotopic arrangement explains this specific pattern of neurological deficit?

. Spinothalamic tract
. Dorsal column medial lemniscus tract
. Lateral corticospinal tract
. Anterior spinocerebellar tract
. Vestibulospinal tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral corticospinal tract


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically results from hyperextension injuries in stenotic cervical spines. Within the lateral corticospinal tract, the cervical motor fibers are located medially while the lumbar/sacral fibers are lateral, explaining the disproportionate upper extremity weakness.

Question 6523

Topic: 6. Spine

A 28-year-old male suffers a stab wound to the right side of his back at the T10 level. Upon examination, he exhibits loss of motor function and proprioception on the right side of his lower extremities, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side. Which of the following best describes this classic neurological presentation?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Cauda equina syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brown-Sequard syndrome


Explanation

Brown-Sequard syndrome results from a functional hemisection of the spinal cord. It presents with ipsilateral loss of motor function (corticospinal tract) and proprioception (dorsal columns), and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation (spinothalamic tract).

Question 6524

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male with a 30-year history of advanced ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with severe, localized thoracic back pain after a minor fall from standing. Initial plain radiographs of the thoracic spine are reported as negative for acute fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with NSAIDs and muscle relaxants
. Prescribe a Jewett brace and outpatient follow-up in 2 weeks
. Obtain a CT scan or MRI of the entire spine
. Perform dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. Initiate aggressive physical therapy for spinal mobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a CT scan or MRI of the entire spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigidly fused, osteoporotic spines and are at exceptionally high risk for highly unstable, occult fractures even from low-energy trauma. A CT or MRI of the entire spine is mandatory to rule out life-threatening fractures or epidural hematomas.

Question 6525

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 15-year-old female gymnast complains of chronic low back pain and radiating left leg pain. Radiographs reveal a Grade II isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. If this patient is experiencing single-root radicular symptoms, which specific nerve root is most likely compressed by the pathoanatomy of this condition?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5


Explanation

In L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, the L5 exiting nerve root is most commonly compressed within the neural foramen. This compression is typically caused by the hypertrophic fibrocartilaginous tissue attempting to heal the pars interarticularis defect (the "pars mass").

Question 6526

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with right-sided neck pain radiating down his arm. Physical exam reveals notable weakness in wrist extension, sensory deficit over the thumb and index finger, and a symmetrically diminished brachioradialis reflex. Which cervical disc herniation level is most likely responsible for these objective findings?

. C3-C4
. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C6


Explanation

The clinical findings of weakness in wrist extension, diminished brachioradialis reflex, and altered sensation in the radial digits are classic for a C6 radiculopathy. In the cervical spine, this is most commonly caused by a herniation at the C5-C6 disc space compressing the exiting C6 nerve root.

Question 6527

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 35-year-old male dives into a shallow pool and sustains an axial loading injury to his neck. AP open-mouth odontoid radiographs reveal a combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 measuring 8.5 mm. According to the Rule of Spence, this specific radiographic finding suggests rupture of which ligamentous structure?

. Alar ligament
. Apical ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse ligament


Explanation

The Rule of Spence dictates that a combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 measuring 6.9 mm or greater on an AP open-mouth radiograph indicates a highly likely rupture of the transverse ligament. This renders a Jefferson (C1 burst) fracture highly unstable.

Question 6528

Topic: 6. Spine

A traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) is characterized by bilateral fractures through the pars interarticularis of C2. What is the classic primary mechanism of injury responsible for this fracture pattern?

. Hyperflexion and distraction
. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Lateral bending and unilateral rotation
. Pure axial traction
. Direct posterior blow to the occiput

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

A Hangman's fracture is classically caused by a mechanism of hyperextension combined with axial loading. In modern scenarios, this is most commonly seen in motor vehicle collisions where the patient's unrestrained chin strikes the dashboard.

Question 6529

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male with a history of an L3-S1 instrumented spinal fusion is planning to undergo a total hip arthroplasty (THA). Evaluation of his spinopelvic parameters demonstrates a stiff spinopelvic junction with an inability to increase his pelvic tilt when transitioning from a standing to a seated position. To minimize the risk of dislocation, how should the acetabular component positioning be modified?

. Increase acetabular anteversion
. Decrease acetabular anteversion
. Increase acetabular retroversion
. Decrease acetabular inclination
. Maintain standard safe-zone positioning (15 degrees anteversion, 40 degrees inclination)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase acetabular anteversion


Explanation

In patients with a fused or stiff lumbar spine, the pelvis fails to posteriorly tilt when moving from standing to sitting. Normal posterior pelvic tilt functionally increases acetabular anteversion, allowing clearance for the proximal femur in hip flexion. Without this compensatory tilt, the anterior femur impinges on the anterior acetabulum during sitting, levering the head out posteriorly. To compensate, the surgeon should increase the operative anteversion of the acetabular component.

Question 6530

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male with a history of an L2-to-pelvis fusion for degenerative scoliosis is undergoing a primary total hip arthroplasty. Due to his fused lumbosacral spine, his pelvis cannot tilt posteriorly when transitioning from standing to sitting. What complication is he at the highest risk for, and what compensatory adjustment should the surgeon make regarding acetabular cup positioning?

. Risk of anterior dislocation; decrease cup anteversion
. Risk of posterior dislocation; increase cup anteversion
. Risk of anterior dislocation; increase cup inclination
. Risk of posterior dislocation; decrease cup anteversion
. Risk of lateral dislocation; increase femoral offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Risk of posterior dislocation; increase cup anteversion


Explanation

Normally, when transitioning from standing to sitting, the lumbar spine flexes and the pelvis tilts posteriorly, which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and clears the femur to prevent impingement. In a stiff spine (e.g., L2-pelvis fusion), the pelvis cannot tilt posteriorly when sitting. Thus, the cup remains relatively retroverted, leading to anterior impingement and posterior dislocation. To compensate, the surgeon should increase the anteversion of the acetabular cup.

Question 6531

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old male with a history of a multi-level lumbar spinal fusion (L2-S1) is undergoing a primary THA. Preoperative standing and sitting lateral spinopelvic radiographs show a change in sacral slope of 5 degrees. How should the acetabular cup positioning be altered to minimize the risk of posterior dislocation during sitting?

. Increase cup anteversion and increase inclination
. Decrease cup anteversion and decrease inclination
. Increase cup anteversion and decrease inclination
. Maintain standard Lewinnek safe zone parameters (15 deg anteversion, 40 deg inclination)
. Use a constrained liner with standard version

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase cup anteversion and decrease inclination


Explanation

Normal spinopelvic mechanics involve posterior pelvic tilt when moving from standing to sitting, which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and clears the anterior femur. A stiff spine (defined as <10 degree change in sacral slope from standing to sitting) fails to posteriorly tilt the pelvis during sitting. Because the pelvis does not tilt posteriorly, the cup does not functionally antevert, leading to anterior impingement and posterior dislocation during sitting. To compensate for this lack of dynamic anteversion, the surgeon should place the cup with increased anteversion and increased inclination (target anteversion ~20-25 degrees, inclination ~45-50) or use a dual mobility implant.

Question 6532

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In evaluating a patient for an adult spinal deformity correction, achieving sagittal balance is critical to prevent adjacent segment disease. According to the Schwab-SRS classification, the mismatch between Pelvic Incidence (PI) and Lumbar Lordosis (LL) should ideally be maintained within what range?
. PI - LL < 10 degrees
. PI - LL < 20 degrees
. PI - LL > 15 degrees
. PI - LL = 0 to -10 degrees
. PI - LL > 25 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PI - LL < 10 degrees


Explanation

In sagittal plane deformity correction, optimal outcomes and decreased risk of adjacent segment disease are correlated with achieving a Pelvic Incidence (PI) minus Lumbar Lordosis (LL) mismatch of less than 10 degrees (ideally PI ≈ LL ± 9 degrees). A mismatch greater than 10 degrees indicates residual flatback deformity.

Question 6533

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with acute neck pain radiating down his right arm following a weightlifting injury. Neurological examination reveals weakness in wrist extension, diminished sensation over the dorsal web space between the thumb and index finger, and a decreased brachioradialis reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a C6 radiculopathy. The C6 nerve root provides motor innervation for wrist extension (extensor carpi radialis longus/brevis) and elbow flexion (biceps, brachioradialis). It provides sensory innervation to the lateral forearm, thumb, and index finger. The brachioradialis reflex is primarily mediated by the C6 nerve root.

Question 6534

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old gymnast presents with progressive low back pain exacerbated by extension. Lateral radiographs of the lumbar spine reveal a pars interarticularis defect at L5 with a 30% anterior translation of L5 on S1. According to the Meyerding classification, what grade of spondylolisthesis does this patient have?
. Grade I
. Grade II
. Grade III
. Grade IV
. Grade V (Spondyloptosis)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade II


Explanation

The Meyerding classification grades the severity of spondylolisthesis based on the percentage of anterior translation of the superior vertebral body over the inferior one. Grade I: < 25%; Grade II: 25-50%; Grade III: 50-75%; Grade IV: 75-100%; Grade V (Spondyloptosis): > 100% (complete slippage). A 30% slip falls into the Grade II category.

Question 6535

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male presents with bilateral hand clumsiness, difficulty buttoning his shirt, and a broad-based, unsteady gait. Physical examination reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and generalized hyperreflexia. An MRI of the cervical spine is most likely to show significant compression of which of the following structures?

. Cervical nerve roots
. Cervical sympathetic chain
. Anterior horn cells
. Spinal cord
. Vertebral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal cord


Explanation

The patient presents with classic signs and symptoms of Cervical Spondylotic Myelopathy (CSM), a condition caused by compression of the spinal cord. Symptoms include upper extremity clumsiness (loss of fine motor skills), gait disturbances, and upper motor neuron signs such as a positive Hoffmann's sign, hyperreflexia, and a positive Babinski sign.

Question 6536

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male presents with bilateral lower extremity pain and cramping that worsens with walking upright, but is completely relieved when he sits or leans forward over a shopping cart. What is the primary pathophysiologic reason for the symptom relief experienced during lumbar flexion?

. Flexion dynamically increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina
. Flexion decreases the mechanical compressive load on the facet joints
. Flexion acutely reduces tension on the sciatic nerve
. Flexion improves peripheral arterial blood flow to the lower extremities
. Flexion relaxes the lumbar paraspinal musculature, reducing reactive spasms

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion dynamically increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina


Explanation

The patient is experiencing neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. Lumbar flexion (such as leaning over a shopping cart) predictably relieves symptoms because it dynamically increases the cross-sectional area of the central spinal canal and neural foramina. This temporarily decompresses the cauda equina and nerve roots. Conversely, extension narrows these spaces and exacerbates ischemia and pain.

Question 6537

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old gymnast presents with chronic mid-back pain. Lateral radiographs show anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in three consecutive thoracic vertebrae, along with Schmorl's nodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Postural kyphosis
. Scheuermann's disease
. Spondylolysis
. Ankylosing spondylitis
. Osteoid osteoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scheuermann's disease


Explanation

Scheuermann's kyphosis is diagnosed radiographically by anterior wedging of >5 degrees across at least three consecutive vertebrae. Associated findings often include Schmorl's nodes and irregular vertebral endplates.

Question 6538

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old male complains of bilateral leg pain and heaviness that worsens with walking and improves when he leans forward over a shopping cart. MRI of the lumbar spine confirms severe central spinal stenosis. Which pathognomonic ligamentous change most contributes to this dorsal compression?

. Thickening of the anterior longitudinal ligament
. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament
. Rupture of the interspinous ligament
. Calcification of the transverse ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum


Explanation

Lumbar spinal stenosis is commonly exacerbated by degenerative hypertrophy and buckling of the ligamentum flavum, which compresses the neural elements dorsally. Forward flexion stretches the ligamentum flavum, relieving the compression.

Question 6539

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with neck pain and paresthesias in her hands. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine demonstrate an atlanto-dens interval (ADI) of 8 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. Hard cervical collar and NSAIDs
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6
. Suboccipital decompression alone
. Observation and repeat radiographs in 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 fusion


Explanation

In rheumatoid arthritis, an ADI greater than 7 mm indicates disruption of the transverse ligament with a high risk of neurologic injury. Posterior C1-C2 fusion is indicated to stabilize the unstable atlantoaxial joint.

Question 6540

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male undergoes a multi-level posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion from C3 to C6 for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 1, he is noted to have a new-onset right deltoid and biceps weakness (grade 2/5). His sensation is intact, and his myelopathic symptoms in the lower extremities have improved. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate MRI of the cervical spine
. Immediate return to the operating room for exploration
. C5 nerve root injection with corticosteroids
. Observation and physical therapy
. Administration of systemic high-dose corticosteroids

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and physical therapy


Explanation

The patient is presenting with a C5 palsy, a well-known complication after cervical decompression (especially laminectomy and fusion). It typically presents with deltoid and/or biceps weakness with or without sensory changes, often occurring 1-3 days postoperatively. Since the patient's long-tract signs are improving and the deficit is isolated to C5, the standard of care is observation and physical therapy. The majority of patients recover spontaneously within 6 months.