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Question 6501

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 80-year-old female presents after a ground-level fall with severe neck pain. CT scan reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 6 mm of posterior displacement. She has a history of severe COPD and ischemic heart disease. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion
. C1-C2 transarticular screws without bone graft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion


Explanation

In elderly patients, Type II odontoid fractures have a high nonunion rate, and halo vests are associated with high morbidity and mortality. Posterior C1-C2 fusion is the treatment of choice for displaced fractures in this demographic to achieve stability and avoid the risks of conservative bracing.

Question 6502

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male with a 20-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents with severe neck pain after a low-speed motor vehicle collision. Neurologic exam is intact. Radiographs and CT show a transverse fracture through the C5-C6 disc space extending through the posterior elements. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Isolated anterior cervical plating
. Short-segment posterior cervical fixation
. Long-segment posterior cervical instrumentation
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and plating
. Cervical traction followed by a Minerva cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long-segment posterior cervical instrumentation


Explanation

Fractures in ankylosing spondylitis are highly unstable "chalk-stick" fractures that involve all three spinal columns. They typically require long-segment posterior instrumentation (often 3 levels above and below) because anterior-only or short-segment constructs have unacceptably high failure rates.

Question 6503

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male is evaluated after a fall from a ladder. CT imaging demonstrates an L1 burst fracture with 15 degrees of kyphosis and 30% canal compromise. The posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is completely intact on MRI. Neurologic examination is entirely normal. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate management?

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) and early mobilization
. Short-segment posterior pedicle screw fixation
. Anterior L1 corpectomy and strut grafting
. L1 laminectomy without fusion
. Long-segment posterior fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) and early mobilization


Explanation

This patient has a TLICS score of 2 (Morphology: Burst = 2; Neuro: Intact = 0; PLC: Intact = 0). A score of less than 4 indicates non-operative management, making a TLSO brace or early mobilization the most appropriate choice.

Question 6504

Topic: 6. Spine

During a posterior spinal fusion for an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, the neuromonitoring technician reports a sudden 80% decrease in transcranial motor evoked potentials (MEPs) in the right lower extremity. Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) remain at baseline. What is the most appropriate immediate first step?

. Check anesthetic depth, blood pressure, and oxygenation
. Perform a Stagnara wake-up test
. Immediately remove all pedicle screws
. Administer high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
. Abort the surgical procedure entirely

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Check anesthetic depth, blood pressure, and oxygenation


Explanation

The initial step for an isolated loss of MEPs is to rule out systemic or anesthetic causes such as hypotension, hypoxia, or the recent administration of paralytic agents. Prompt communication with the anesthesia team is crucial before altering the surgical field.

Question 6505

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old intravenous drug user presents with 2 weeks of worsening back pain, low-grade fevers, and new-onset bilateral leg weakness (3/5) starting 12 hours ago. Inflammatory markers are markedly elevated. MRI reveals a massive L2-L4 dorsal epidural abscess. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. CT-guided needle aspiration for cultures
. Initiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics only
. Emergent surgical decompression and debridement
. Strict bed rest and high-dose dexamethasone
. Outpatient oral antibiotics and close follow-up

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent surgical decompression and debridement


Explanation

A spinal epidural abscess presenting with an acute, progressive neurologic deficit is a surgical emergency. Urgent surgical decompression must be performed immediately to prevent irreversible paralysis, taking precedence over isolated antibiotic therapy or percutaneous biopsy.

Question 6506

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 15-year-old competitive gymnast presents with intractable mechanical low back pain for 9 months. She has failed intensive physical therapy and bracing. Radiographs show a Grade II L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. She has no radicular symptoms. What is the gold-standard surgical intervention for this patient?

. Direct repair of the pars interarticularis (Buck technique)
. L5-S1 in situ posterolateral fusion
. L5-S1 complete reduction and interbody fusion
. L4-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
. Laminectomy of L5 without fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5-S1 in situ posterolateral fusion


Explanation

For adolescents with symptomatic low-grade (Grade I or II) isthmic spondylolisthesis who fail conservative care, an in situ L5-S1 posterolateral fusion is the established gold standard. Attempting complete anatomic reduction increases the risk of an L5 nerve root stretch injury.

Question 6507

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with worsening neck pain and myelopathy. Lateral flexion-extension radiographs show an Atlantodental Interval (ADI) of 8 mm. The posterior Space Available for the Cord (SAC) is 12 mm. What is the most appropriate management?

. Application of a hard cervical collar
. Routine clinical follow-up in 6 months
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion
. Transoral odontoidectomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion


Explanation

In the rheumatoid cervical spine, a Space Available for the Cord (SAC) of less than 14 mm or an ADI greater than 9 mm correlates strongly with neurologic injury. Because her SAC is 12 mm and she is myelopathic, a posterior C1-C2 fusion is strictly indicated.

Question 6508

Topic: 6. Spine

In a 12-year-old patient with a Grade IV L5-S1 dysplastic spondylolisthesis, radiographic evaluation demonstrates a significantly elevated "slip angle". What does an increased slip angle primarily indicate in this clinical scenario?

. A high likelihood of spontaneous arthrodesis
. An increased risk of further listhetic progression
. A decreased risk of L5 radiculopathy
. A correlation with proximal thoracic hyperkyphosis
. A favorable prognosis for non-operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An increased risk of further listhetic progression


Explanation

The slip angle measures lumbosacral kyphosis. A high slip angle in high-grade spondylolisthesis is one of the strongest biomechanical predictors for continued slip progression and deformity, heavily favoring surgical stabilization.

Question 6509

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset perineal numbness, bilateral sciatica, and inability to void. Bladder scan reveals 700 mL of retained urine. MRI shows a massive central disc extrusion at L4-L5. What is the critical time window for definitive intervention to maximize functional recovery?

. Urgent surgical decompression within 24 to 48 hours
. Intravenous steroids with re-evaluation in 72 hours
. Lumbar drain placement within 12 hours
. Emergent surgical decompression within 60 minutes
. Epidural steroid injection within 24 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent surgical decompression within 24 to 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is an absolute surgical emergency. Literature supports that urgent surgical decompression, ideally performed within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset, maximizes the chance of recovering bladder, bowel, and sexual function.

Question 6510

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 22-year-old female sustains a seatbelt-type injury in a motor vehicle accident. CT demonstrates an L2 flexion-distraction (Chance) fracture strictly confined to the bone, with avulsion of the posterior spinous process and widening of the pedicles. Neurologic exam is normal. What is the most appropriate primary treatment?

. Extension thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO)
. Anterior L2 corpectomy and plating
. L2 laminectomy without fusion
. Posterior interspinous wiring
. Percutaneous pedicle screw fixation without fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extension thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO)


Explanation

A purely bony Chance fracture (flexion-distraction injury) without neurologic compromise has excellent healing potential due to the large cancellous bone surfaces involved. It is typically managed successfully with closed reduction and an extension orthosis (TLSO).

Question 6511

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old male presents after a diving accident. Radiographs reveal a fracture through the pars interarticularis of C2 with 4 mm of anterior translation and 12 degrees of angulation of C2 on C3 (Levine-Edwards Type II Hangman's fracture). What is the recommended initial management?

. Soft cervical collar for comfort
. Closed reduction with gentle traction followed by a Halo vest
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Anterior C2-C3 discectomy and fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction with gentle traction followed by a Halo vest


Explanation

A Type II Hangman's fracture involves significant angulation and translation due to disruption of the C2-C3 disc and posterior longitudinal ligament. It is best managed initially with gentle axial traction for reduction, followed by definitive immobilization in a halo vest.

Question 6512

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old male complains of radiating neck pain into his right arm, specifically accompanied by numbness in his middle finger. On exam, he has 3/5 weakness in right elbow extension and an absent right triceps reflex. Which cervical disc herniation level is the most likely cause of these findings?

. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1
. T1-T2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6-C7


Explanation

The clinical presentation describes a C7 radiculopathy (triceps weakness, absent triceps reflex, and middle finger numbness). In the cervical spine, the exiting nerve root is named for the lower vertebral segment, so the C7 nerve root is compressed at the C6-C7 disc level.

Question 6513

Topic: 6. Spine

A 2-year-old boy is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully unsegmented unilateral bar with a contralateral hemivertebra at T8. Prior to any planned surgical intervention, which diagnostic modality is absolutely mandatory?

. High-resolution CT scan of the chest
. MRI of the entire neuroaxis
. DEXA scan for bone mineral density
. Dynamic fluoroscopy of the cervical spine
. Echocardiogram with bubble study

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the entire neuroaxis


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis has a high association (up to 40%) with intraspinal anomalies such as tethered cord, diastematomyelia, and syringomyelia. Therefore, an MRI of the entire neuroaxis is mandatory before any corrective surgery to prevent iatrogenic neurologic injury.

Question 6514

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 48-year-old female undergoes a right-sided anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7. Post-operatively, she complains of significant hoarseness. Direct laryngoscopy confirms a unilateral paralyzed vocal cord. Injury to which of the following structures is most likely responsible?

. Glossopharyngeal nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Hypoglossal nerve
. Sympathetic trunk

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve


Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx. It is highly vulnerable during lower anterior cervical approaches (C6-T1), particularly on the right side where its anatomical course is more variable and non-recurrent.

Question 6515

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old male sustains an axial load injury to the cervical spine. An open-mouth odontoid radiograph reveals a combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of 8.5 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Application of a soft cervical collar for 6 weeks
. Cervical traction and closed reduction
. Evaluation of the transverse atlantal ligament with an MRI
. Immediate occipitocervical fusion
. C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Evaluation of the transverse atlantal ligament with an MRI


Explanation

A combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of >6.9 mm (Spence's rule) strongly suggests a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament. MRI is indicated to directly evaluate the integrity of the ligament, which dictates whether treatment should be a halo vest or C1-C2 fusion.

Question 6516

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male with a long-standing history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-energy fall. He complains of severe neck pain but has no neurologic deficits. CT scan reveals a non-displaced, highly unstable extension-type fracture through the C6-C7 disc space. What is the most devastating and relatively common early complication associated with this specific injury pattern?

. Vertebral artery dissection
. Progressive kyphotic deformity
. Epidural hematoma causing delayed neurologic deficit
. Esophageal perforation
. Cerebrospinal fluid leak

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epidural hematoma causing delayed neurologic deficit


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are prone to unstable, sheer-type spinal fractures even from minor trauma due to altered biomechanics. They have a significantly increased risk of post-traumatic epidural hematomas, which can cause sudden and devastating neurologic deterioration.

Question 6517

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old male with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents with severe bilateral arm weakness, particularly in his hands, and relatively preserved lower extremity strength after a hyperextension injury. Perianal sensation is intact. What is the anatomic rationale for this specific pattern of neurologic deficit?

. Ischemia to the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord
. Damage to the central gray matter and the medial aspect of the corticospinal tracts
. Disruption of the dorsal columns
. Hemisection of the spinal cord at the cervical level
. Compression of the bilateral exiting nerve roots in the intervertebral foramina

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Damage to the central gray matter and the medial aspect of the corticospinal tracts


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after hyperextension injuries in patients with pre-existing spondylosis. The upper extremity motor tracts are located more medially within the corticospinal tract, making them more susceptible to central cord damage than the laterally situated lower extremity tracts.

Question 6518

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 22-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident while wearing a lap belt. Radiographs show a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at the T12 level. Which of the following associated injuries must be urgently ruled out?

. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Aortic transection
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
. Pulmonary contusion
. Pelvic ring disruption

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury


Explanation

Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries) are highly associated with lap seatbelt injuries. There is a strong association (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus injuries (e.g., bowel perforation), which require urgent general surgery evaluation.

Question 6519

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6 using a right-sided approach, the patient develops postoperative hoarseness. Which anatomical feature explains why the recurrent laryngeal nerve is more susceptible to injury on the right side compared to the left during this approach?

. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve runs anterior to the carotid sheath.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve does not descend into the thorax and crosses more transversely in the neck.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the arch of the aorta.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve is securely tethered by the inferior thyroid artery.
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes strictly within the tracheoesophageal groove throughout its course.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve does not descend into the thorax and crosses more transversely in the neck.


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and crosses the surgical field more transversely and aberrantly compared to the left. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the aortic arch and ascends predictably in the tracheoesophageal groove, making it less prone to injury.

Question 6520

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female presents with severe neurogenic claudication. Imaging reveals a Grade 1 degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 with significant lateral recess stenosis. If a single nerve root is primarily compressed in the lateral recess at this level, which physical exam finding is most likely?

. Weakness in hip flexion
. Weakness in knee extension
. Weakness in extensor hallucis longus (EHL)
. Decreased Achilles tendon reflex
. Sensory loss over the anterior thigh

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in extensor hallucis longus (EHL)


Explanation

In L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, the stenosis most commonly affects the lateral recess, leading to compression of the traversing L5 nerve root. L5 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in the extensor hallucis longus (EHL) and altered sensation over the first dorsal web space.