This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6501
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 80-year-old female presents after a ground-level fall with severe neck pain. CT scan reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 6 mm of posterior displacement. She has a history of severe COPD and ischemic heart disease. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion
Explanation
In elderly patients, Type II odontoid fractures have a high nonunion rate, and halo vests are associated with high morbidity and mortality. Posterior C1-C2 fusion is the treatment of choice for displaced fractures in this demographic to achieve stability and avoid the risks of conservative bracing.
Question 6502
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old male with a 20-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents with severe neck pain after a low-speed motor vehicle collision. Neurologic exam is intact. Radiographs and CT show a transverse fracture through the C5-C6 disc space extending through the posterior elements. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long-segment posterior cervical instrumentation
Explanation
Fractures in ankylosing spondylitis are highly unstable "chalk-stick" fractures that involve all three spinal columns. They typically require long-segment posterior instrumentation (often 3 levels above and below) because anterior-only or short-segment constructs have unacceptably high failure rates.
Question 6503
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 35-year-old male is evaluated after a fall from a ladder. CT imaging demonstrates an L1 burst fracture with 15 degrees of kyphosis and 30% canal compromise. The posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is completely intact on MRI. Neurologic examination is entirely normal. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) and early mobilization
Explanation
This patient has a TLICS score of 2 (Morphology: Burst = 2; Neuro: Intact = 0; PLC: Intact = 0). A score of less than 4 indicates non-operative management, making a TLSO brace or early mobilization the most appropriate choice.
Question 6504
Topic: 6. Spine
During a posterior spinal fusion for an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, the neuromonitoring technician reports a sudden 80% decrease in transcranial motor evoked potentials (MEPs) in the right lower extremity. Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) remain at baseline. What is the most appropriate immediate first step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Check anesthetic depth, blood pressure, and oxygenation
Explanation
The initial step for an isolated loss of MEPs is to rule out systemic or anesthetic causes such as hypotension, hypoxia, or the recent administration of paralytic agents. Prompt communication with the anesthesia team is crucial before altering the surgical field.
Question 6505
Topic: 6. Spine
A 42-year-old intravenous drug user presents with 2 weeks of worsening back pain, low-grade fevers, and new-onset bilateral leg weakness (3/5) starting 12 hours ago. Inflammatory markers are markedly elevated. MRI reveals a massive L2-L4 dorsal epidural abscess. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Emergent surgical decompression and debridement
Explanation
A spinal epidural abscess presenting with an acute, progressive neurologic deficit is a surgical emergency. Urgent surgical decompression must be performed immediately to prevent irreversible paralysis, taking precedence over isolated antibiotic therapy or percutaneous biopsy.
Question 6506
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 15-year-old competitive gymnast presents with intractable mechanical low back pain for 9 months. She has failed intensive physical therapy and bracing. Radiographs show a Grade II L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. She has no radicular symptoms. What is the gold-standard surgical intervention for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5-S1 in situ posterolateral fusion
Explanation
For adolescents with symptomatic low-grade (Grade I or II) isthmic spondylolisthesis who fail conservative care, an in situ L5-S1 posterolateral fusion is the established gold standard. Attempting complete anatomic reduction increases the risk of an L5 nerve root stretch injury.
Question 6507
Topic: 6. Spine
A 62-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with worsening neck pain and myelopathy. Lateral flexion-extension radiographs show an Atlantodental Interval (ADI) of 8 mm. The posterior Space Available for the Cord (SAC) is 12 mm. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion
Explanation
In the rheumatoid cervical spine, a Space Available for the Cord (SAC) of less than 14 mm or an ADI greater than 9 mm correlates strongly with neurologic injury. Because her SAC is 12 mm and she is myelopathic, a posterior C1-C2 fusion is strictly indicated.
Question 6508
Topic: 6. Spine
In a 12-year-old patient with a Grade IV L5-S1 dysplastic spondylolisthesis, radiographic evaluation demonstrates a significantly elevated "slip angle". What does an increased slip angle primarily indicate in this clinical scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. An increased risk of further listhetic progression
Explanation
The slip angle measures lumbosacral kyphosis. A high slip angle in high-grade spondylolisthesis is one of the strongest biomechanical predictors for continued slip progression and deformity, heavily favoring surgical stabilization.
Question 6509
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset perineal numbness, bilateral sciatica, and inability to void. Bladder scan reveals 700 mL of retained urine. MRI shows a massive central disc extrusion at L4-L5. What is the critical time window for definitive intervention to maximize functional recovery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Urgent surgical decompression within 24 to 48 hours
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is an absolute surgical emergency. Literature supports that urgent surgical decompression, ideally performed within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset, maximizes the chance of recovering bladder, bowel, and sexual function.
Question 6510
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 22-year-old female sustains a seatbelt-type injury in a motor vehicle accident. CT demonstrates an L2 flexion-distraction (Chance) fracture strictly confined to the bone, with avulsion of the posterior spinous process and widening of the pedicles. Neurologic exam is normal. What is the most appropriate primary treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extension thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO)
Explanation
A purely bony Chance fracture (flexion-distraction injury) without neurologic compromise has excellent healing potential due to the large cancellous bone surfaces involved. It is typically managed successfully with closed reduction and an extension orthosis (TLSO).
Question 6511
Topic: 6. Spine
A 30-year-old male presents after a diving accident. Radiographs reveal a fracture through the pars interarticularis of C2 with 4 mm of anterior translation and 12 degrees of angulation of C2 on C3 (Levine-Edwards Type II Hangman's fracture). What is the recommended initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction with gentle traction followed by a Halo vest
Explanation
A Type II Hangman's fracture involves significant angulation and translation due to disruption of the C2-C3 disc and posterior longitudinal ligament. It is best managed initially with gentle axial traction for reduction, followed by definitive immobilization in a halo vest.
Question 6512
Topic: 6. Spine
A 50-year-old male complains of radiating neck pain into his right arm, specifically accompanied by numbness in his middle finger. On exam, he has 3/5 weakness in right elbow extension and an absent right triceps reflex. Which cervical disc herniation level is the most likely cause of these findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6-C7
Explanation
The clinical presentation describes a C7 radiculopathy (triceps weakness, absent triceps reflex, and middle finger numbness). In the cervical spine, the exiting nerve root is named for the lower vertebral segment, so the C7 nerve root is compressed at the C6-C7 disc level.
Question 6513
Topic: 6. Spine
A 2-year-old boy is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully unsegmented unilateral bar with a contralateral hemivertebra at T8. Prior to any planned surgical intervention, which diagnostic modality is absolutely mandatory?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the entire neuroaxis
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis has a high association (up to 40%) with intraspinal anomalies such as tethered cord, diastematomyelia, and syringomyelia. Therefore, an MRI of the entire neuroaxis is mandatory before any corrective surgery to prevent iatrogenic neurologic injury.
Question 6514
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 48-year-old female undergoes a right-sided anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7. Post-operatively, she complains of significant hoarseness. Direct laryngoscopy confirms a unilateral paralyzed vocal cord. Injury to which of the following structures is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation
The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx. It is highly vulnerable during lower anterior cervical approaches (C6-T1), particularly on the right side where its anatomical course is more variable and non-recurrent.
Question 6515
Topic: 6. Spine
A 30-year-old male sustains an axial load injury to the cervical spine. An open-mouth odontoid radiograph reveals a combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of 8.5 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Evaluation of the transverse atlantal ligament with an MRI
Explanation
A combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 of >6.9 mm (Spence's rule) strongly suggests a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament. MRI is indicated to directly evaluate the integrity of the ligament, which dictates whether treatment should be a halo vest or C1-C2 fusion.
Question 6516
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male with a long-standing history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-energy fall. He complains of severe neck pain but has no neurologic deficits. CT scan reveals a non-displaced, highly unstable extension-type fracture through the C6-C7 disc space. What is the most devastating and relatively common early complication associated with this specific injury pattern?
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are prone to unstable, sheer-type spinal fractures even from minor trauma due to altered biomechanics. They have a significantly increased risk of post-traumatic epidural hematomas, which can cause sudden and devastating neurologic deterioration.
Question 6517
Topic: 6. Spine
A 70-year-old male with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents with severe bilateral arm weakness, particularly in his hands, and relatively preserved lower extremity strength after a hyperextension injury. Perianal sensation is intact. What is the anatomic rationale for this specific pattern of neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Damage to the central gray matter and the medial aspect of the corticospinal tracts
Explanation
Central cord syndrome typically occurs after hyperextension injuries in patients with pre-existing spondylosis. The upper extremity motor tracts are located more medially within the corticospinal tract, making them more susceptible to central cord damage than the laterally situated lower extremity tracts.
Question 6518
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 22-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident while wearing a lap belt. Radiographs show a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at the T12 level. Which of the following associated injuries must be urgently ruled out?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
Explanation
Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries) are highly associated with lap seatbelt injuries. There is a strong association (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus injuries (e.g., bowel perforation), which require urgent general surgery evaluation.
Question 6519
Topic: Cervical Spine
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6 using a right-sided approach, the patient develops postoperative hoarseness. Which anatomical feature explains why the recurrent laryngeal nerve is more susceptible to injury on the right side compared to the left during this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve does not descend into the thorax and crosses more transversely in the neck.
Explanation
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and crosses the surgical field more transversely and aberrantly compared to the left. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the aortic arch and ascends predictably in the tracheoesophageal groove, making it less prone to injury.
Question 6520
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old female presents with severe neurogenic claudication. Imaging reveals a Grade 1 degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 with significant lateral recess stenosis. If a single nerve root is primarily compressed in the lateral recess at this level, which physical exam finding is most likely?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Weakness in extensor hallucis longus (EHL)
Explanation
In L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, the stenosis most commonly affects the lateral recess, leading to compression of the traversing L5 nerve root. L5 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in the extensor hallucis longus (EHL) and altered sensation over the first dorsal web space.
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