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Question 4401

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old patient presents with acute, burning right anterior thigh pain, weakness in right knee extension, and an absent right patellar reflex. MRI reveals a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation. At which lumbar level is this herniation most likely located?

. L1-L2
. L2-L3
. L3-L4
. L4-L5
. L5-S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L1-L2


Explanation

A far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level (e.g., L3-L4 far lateral disc hits the L3 root). The L3 root innervates the quadriceps, leading to anterior thigh pain, knee extension weakness, and diminished patellar reflex.

Question 4402

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 22-year-old female sustains a severe seatbelt-type flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at the L2 level during a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Which concomitant visceral injury is most classically associated with this specific fracture pattern?

. Splenic rupture
. Hepatic laceration
. Hollow viscus (bowel) injury
. Renal contusion
. Diaphragmatic rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Splenic rupture


Explanation

Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries) are notoriously associated with concurrent intra-abdominal injuries, most commonly hollow viscus (bowel) injuries. A high index of suspicion and general surgery consultation are mandatory in these patients.

Question 4403

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old Japanese male presents with cervical myelopathy. CT scan shows a dense, continuous calcified mass along the posterior aspect of the C3-C5 vertebral bodies, consistent with Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL). Which surgical approach carries the highest specific risk of iatrogenic dural tear?

. Posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion
. Posterior cervical laminoplasty
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior foraminotomy
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion


Explanation

Anterior approaches (such as corpectomy) for OPLL carry a high risk of dural tears because the ossified posterior longitudinal ligament is frequently adherent to, or completely incorporates, the underlying ventral dura.

Question 4404

Topic: 6. Spine

A Levine-Edwards Type II traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) typically demonstrates significant anterior translation and angulation. What is the classic mechanism of injury required to produce this specific Type II pattern?

. Pure axial compression
. Hyperextension followed by severe lateral flexion
. Hyperextension and axial loading followed by rebound flexion
. Hyperflexion with superimposed rotation
. Isolated distraction without an extension component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pure axial compression


Explanation

A Levine-Edwards Type II Hangman's fracture is classically caused by an initial hyperextension/axial loading force that fractures the pars, followed by a severe rebound flexion force that disrupts the C2-C3 disc and posterior longitudinal ligament, causing translation and angulation.

Question 4405

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old male is evaluated after a motor vehicle collision. He complains of right-sided neck pain and a C6 radiculopathy. Lateral cervical radiographs reveal exactly 25% anterior translation of C5 on C6 and a characteristic "bowtie" sign. What is the primary mechanism of this injury?

. Axial loading and extension
. Flexion and rotation
. Hyperextension and distraction
. Vertical compression
. Lateral flexion and extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axial loading and extension


Explanation

A unilateral facet dislocation is caused by a flexion-rotation mechanism. It typically results in 25% anterior translation of the vertebral body on the lateral radiograph, creating a "bowtie" or "batwing" appearance of the offset facet joints.

Question 4406

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with severe myelopathy secondary to a massive, centrally located, calcified T8-T9 disc herniation. The surgeon is contemplating the operative approach. Which of the following approaches is strictly contraindicated due to an unacceptably high risk of catastrophic spinal cord injury?

. Costotransversectomy
. Transthoracic anterior decompression
. Posterior laminectomy alone
. Lateral extracavitary approach
. Transpedicular approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Costotransversectomy


Explanation

A posterior laminectomy alone is strictly contraindicated for central, calcified thoracic disc herniations. It does not provide adequate ventral exposure, forcing the surgeon to retract the fragile thoracic spinal cord, which routinely results in catastrophic paralysis.

Question 4407

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive gait instability and loss of fine motor skills in his hands. Physical exam reveals hyperreflexia in the lower extremities, a positive Hoffman's sign, and a wide-based gait. MRI of the cervical spine shows severe stenosis at C4-C5 and C5-C6 with T2 signal changes in the spinal cord. Which of the following MRI findings is the most significant predictor of poor neurological recovery after decompressive surgery?

. Broad-based disc bulging at multiple levels
. Presence of T1 hypointensity in the spinal cord
. Loss of cervical lordosis of 15 degrees
. High-intensity signal on T2-weighted images alone
. Ligamentum flavum hypertrophy greater than 3 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Broad-based disc bulging at multiple levels


Explanation

T1 hypointensity in the spinal cord represents myelomalacia or cystic necrosis. It is a sign of irreversible spinal cord damage and is strongly associated with poor neurological recovery following surgery for cervical spondylotic myelopathy.

Question 4408

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 25-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle accident. He has a T12 burst fracture with 50% loss of vertebral body height and 20 degrees of kyphosis. Neurological examination is completely normal. MRI confirms that the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is intact. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate management?

. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing and early mobilization
. Posterior spinal fusion with pedicle screw fixation
. Anterior corpectomy and strut grafting
. Bed rest for 6 weeks followed by bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

The patient's TLICS score is 2 (Morphology: burst = 2; Neurologic status: intact = 0; PLC: intact = 0). A total score of 3 or less is an indication for nonoperative management, such as a TLSO brace.

Question 4409

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old woman falls from a standing height and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture. She has a history of severe osteoporosis and COPD. Her neurologic exam is normal. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Rigid cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Transoral odontoidectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients with Type II odontoid fractures and significant medical comorbidities, halo vest immobilization carries an unacceptably high morbidity and mortality rate. A rigid cervical collar is the safest initial treatment, as it minimizes life-threatening complications despite a higher nonunion rate.

Question 4410

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old woman presents with severe low back pain and an inability to stand up straight. Her standing full-length spine radiographs reveal a pelvic incidence (PI) of 60 degrees and a lumbar lordosis (LL) of 30 degrees. Which of the following best describes her spinopelvic parameters?

. Normal sagittal alignment
. Pelvic incidence-lumbar lordosis (PI-LL) mismatch
. Compensatory thoracic lordosis
. Negative sagittal imbalance
. Decreased pelvic tilt

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normal sagittal alignment


Explanation

A balanced sagittal spine requires the lumbar lordosis to be within 10 degrees of the pelvic incidence. This patient has a PI-LL mismatch of 30 degrees, indicating significant flatback deformity and positive sagittal imbalance.

Question 4411

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old male with a 15-year history of advanced ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department complaining of severe neck pain after a minor fall at home. Initial cross-table lateral radiographs show extensive syndesmophytes but no obvious fracture line. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge home with a soft collar and NSAIDs
. Dynamic flexion-extension cervical radiographs
. CT scan of the entire cervical spine
. Reassurance and outpatient physical therapy
. Diagnostic bilateral facet injections

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge home with a soft collar and NSAIDs


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have rigidly fused, brittle spines and are at exceptionally high risk for unstable, occult fractures even after trivial trauma. A CT scan of the entire cervical spine is mandatory to definitively rule out a fracture when radiographs are inconclusive.

Question 4412

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old construction worker presents with severe left-sided buttock pain radiating down the posterolateral thigh and calf to the dorsum of his foot. On examination, he has decreased sensation over the dorsal web space between his first and second toes and 3/5 weakness in the extensor hallucis longus (EHL). A disc herniation at which level is most likely responsible?

. L2-L3
. L3-L4
. L4-L5
. L5-S1
. S1-S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L2-L3


Explanation

The clinical findings represent an L5 radiculopathy, characterized by weakness in the EHL and sensory loss over the first dorsal web space. In the lumbar spine, a paracentral disc herniation at L4-L5 typically compresses the traversing L5 nerve root.

Question 4413

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated multi-level anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) from C3 to C6 for severe myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, she complains of profound inability to abduct her shoulders and flex her elbows, though her hand function and leg strength remain normal. What is the most likely cause of this complication?

. Intraoperative spinal cord contusion
. Postoperative C5 palsy
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
. Vertebral artery injury
. Postoperative epidural hematoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intraoperative spinal cord contusion


Explanation

Postoperative C5 palsy is a well-described complication following extensive cervical decompression, presenting as isolated deltoid and biceps weakness. It is believed to result from nerve root tethering due to posterior shifting of the spinal cord or reperfusion injury.

Question 4414

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old gymnast presents with chronic, activity-limiting low back pain. Radiographs demonstrate a Grade II isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 with an intact pars defect. Despite 6 months of comprehensive physical therapy, core strengthening, and bracing, her pain remains severe. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF) alone
. L5 laminectomy and pars defect repair without fusion
. Posterior spinal fusion with pedicle screw instrumentation
. Microdiscectomy and bilateral foraminotomies
. Interspinous process spacer placement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF) alone


Explanation

In a symptomatic adolescent with high-grade or progressive isthmic spondylolisthesis who has failed conservative management, in situ posterior spinal fusion with instrumentation is the gold standard. Decompression without fusion is contraindicated as it may exacerbate instability.

Question 4415

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male undergoes a multi-level posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, with no sensory deficits or lower extremity symptoms. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Intraoperative spinal cord contusion
. C5 nerve root tethering from posterior cord drift
. Postoperative epidural hematoma
. Ischemic injury to the anterior spinal artery
. Inadequate decompression of the C4-C5 foramina

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intraoperative spinal cord contusion


Explanation

Postoperative C5 palsy is a known complication of cervical decompression, particularly posterior approaches. It is largely attributed to posterior drift of the spinal cord, which results in traction on the short, tethered C5 nerve roots.

Question 4416

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with severe, acute left leg pain. MRI reveals a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level on the left. Which of the following physical examination findings is most expected?

. Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and a normal patellar reflex
. Weakness in great toe extension and normal reflexes
. Weakness in knee extension and an absent patellar reflex
. Weakness in ankle plantarflexion and an absent Achilles reflex
. Profound sensory loss over the lateral border of the foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and a normal patellar reflex


Explanation

A far-lateral extraforaminal disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the exiting L4 nerve root, whereas a paracentral herniation would compress the traversing L5 root. L4 radiculopathy classically presents with quadriceps weakness and a diminished patellar reflex.

Question 4417

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old man with known cervical spondylosis presents after a hyperextension injury. He exhibits 2/5 motor strength in his bilateral upper extremities and 4/5 motor strength in his bilateral lower extremities. Perianal sensation and proprioception are preserved. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Séquard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Spinal shock

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in a stenotic cervical spine. It presents with disproportionate upper extremity weakness compared to the lower extremities because the cervical arm tracts are located more centrally within the corticospinal tract.

Question 4418

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 30-year-old male falls from a roof, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is his total score and recommended treatment?

. Score 2; nonoperative treatment
. Score 3; operative treatment
. Score 4; operative treatment
. Score 5; operative treatment
. Score 7; operative treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 2; nonoperative treatment


Explanation

The TLICS score assigns 2 points for a burst morphology, 0 points for intact neurology, and 0 points for an intact PLC. A total score of 3 or less indicates nonoperative management (e.g., TLSO brace).

Question 4419

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In the surgical planning for a 65-year-old woman with adult degenerative scoliosis and sagittal imbalance, her pelvic incidence (PI) is measured at 55 degrees. To achieve optimal sagittal alignment and minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease, what should be the target postoperative lumbar lordosis (LL)?

. 10 to 20 degrees
. 25 to 35 degrees
. 45 to 65 degrees
. 70 to 85 degrees
. LL is independent of PI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 20 degrees


Explanation

Optimal sagittal balance in adult spinal deformity correction requires matching the lumbar lordosis (LL) to the pelvic incidence (PI). The widely accepted target is achieving an LL within 10 degrees of the PI (PI - LL < 10 degrees).

Question 4420

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), a right-sided approach is chosen. Which of the following statements regarding the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) is most accurate?

. The right RLN loops under the aortic arch.
. The left RLN is more susceptible to injury because of its aberrant course.
. The right RLN has a more variable and oblique course in the neck.
. The RLN travels within the carotid sheath on both sides.
. Routine prophylactic vocal cord injection prevents RLN injury.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The right RLN loops under the aortic arch.


Explanation

The right RLN has a more variable, oblique course as it loops under the subclavian artery, theoretically increasing its vulnerability during a right-sided anterior cervical approach compared to the more vertical, predictable left RLN.