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Question 4381

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is the strongest indication for adding a concomitant instrumented fusion to a lumbar laminectomy for spinal stenosis?

. Presence of an asymptomatic synovial cyst
. Bilateral lower extremity radiculopathy
. Preoperative mobile degenerative spondylolisthesis
. Severe central canal stenosis (<5 mm AP diameter)
. Symptom duration greater than 2 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of an asymptomatic synovial cyst


Explanation

Performing a decompression without fusion in the setting of a mobile degenerative spondylolisthesis significantly increases the risk of progressive postoperative instability. Therefore, concomitant fusion is indicated to stabilize the segment and prevent poor clinical outcomes.

Question 4382

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old man presents with a T11 fracture after a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals isolated complete loss of motor function and sensation below the umbilicus, with absent rectal tone. The posterior ligamentous complex is disrupted. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?

. Anterior corpectomy and strut grafting
. Posterior short-segment pedicle screw fixation without fusion
. Posterior long-segment instrumentation and fusion
. Anterior and posterior instrumentation and fusion
. Posterior laminectomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior corpectomy and strut grafting


Explanation

In a highly unstable thoracolumbar fracture with posterior ligamentous complex disruption and complete neurologic deficit (TLICS > 4), posterior long-segment instrumentation and fusion is generally indicated to restore stability and alignment. Laminectomy alone is contraindicated as it further destabilizes the spine.

Question 4383

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old woman with known severe lumbar spinal stenosis presents to the emergency department. Which of the following clinical findings most strongly suggests the development of cauda equina syndrome requiring emergent surgical decompression?

. New-onset bilateral weakness in the extensor hallucis longus
. Progressive worsening of neurogenic claudication over 3 weeks
. Urinary retention with overflow incontinence and perianal anesthesia
. Absent bilateral ankle reflexes
. Severe back pain radiating to the anterior thighs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. New-onset bilateral weakness in the extensor hallucis longus


Explanation

Urinary retention with overflow incontinence, saddle anesthesia, and decreased anal sphincter tone are hallmark signs of cauda equina syndrome. This represents a surgical emergency requiring immediate decompression to prevent permanent neurologic deficit.

Question 4384

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis sustains a low-energy fall and complains of severe back pain. Plain radiographs are inconclusive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with NSAIDs and physical therapy
. Bone scintigraphy
. CT scan or MRI of the entire spine
. Flexion-extension lumbar radiographs
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge with NSAIDs and physical therapy


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at high risk for highly unstable extension-distraction fractures even with minor trauma. If plain radiographs are negative but clinical suspicion remains high, advanced imaging (CT or MRI) of the entire spine is required to rule out an occult fracture.

Question 4385

Topic: 6. Spine

In the evaluation of a patient with suspected lumbar spinal stenosis, which diagnostic imaging modality is considered the gold standard for assessing the degree of central canal, lateral recess, and foraminal narrowing?

. Anteroposterior and lateral plain radiographs
. Dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. Non-contrast computed tomography (CT)
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) without contrast
. Technetium-99m bone scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteroposterior and lateral plain radiographs


Explanation

MRI without contrast is the gold standard imaging modality for diagnosing and quantifying lumbar spinal stenosis. It provides excellent soft tissue resolution to evaluate the intervertebral discs, thecal sac, and individual neural elements.

Question 4386

Topic: 6. Spine

When comparing neurogenic claudication to vascular claudication, which of the following characteristics is most specific to neurogenic claudication?

. Pain is relieved immediately upon standing still.
. Pain involves the calves and spares the thighs.
. Pain is relieved by sitting or leaning forward.
. Symptoms are exclusively unilateral.
. Symptoms are exacerbated by riding a stationary bicycle.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain is relieved immediately upon standing still.


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication is characteristically relieved by lumbar flexion (sitting or leaning forward), which increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and foramina. In contrast, vascular claudication is relieved simply by resting, regardless of spinal posture.

Question 4387

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 50-year-old man presents with an L2 burst fracture after a fall. He is neurologically intact. Radiographs show 20 degrees of focal kyphosis and 30% loss of anterior body height. According to current evidence, what is the expected long-term clinical outcome of conservative management with an orthosis compared to surgical stabilization?

. Surgery provides significantly better functional outcomes at 5 years.
. Conservative management results in a much higher rate of late neurologic decline.
. There is no significant difference in functional outcomes or pain at long-term follow-up.
. Surgery prevents late post-traumatic kyphosis, leading to less back pain.
. Conservative management leads to rapid adjacent segment degeneration.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgery provides significantly better functional outcomes at 5 years.


Explanation

Multiple randomized controlled trials have shown no significant difference in long-term functional outcomes, pain, or return to work between operative and nonoperative management for neurologically intact thoracolumbar burst fractures. Conservative management is considered a safe and effective approach for these injuries.

Question 4388

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old patient undergoes an L3-L5 laminectomy for severe central stenosis. During the decompression, an incidental durotomy occurs. What is the most appropriate initial intraoperative management of this complication?

. Placement of a subfascial lumbar drain for 5 days
. Primary repair of the dural tear with non-absorbable suture
. Immediate conversion to a fusion procedure
. Application of fibrin glue without primary repair
. Leaving the defect open and closing the fascia tightly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Placement of a subfascial lumbar drain for 5 days


Explanation

An incidental durotomy recognized intraoperatively should be primarily repaired using a fine non-absorbable suture to prevent cerebrospinal fluid leak. While sealants and tight fascial closures are useful adjuncts, primary repair remains the definitive treatment.

Question 4389

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following anatomic structures forms the anterior border of the lumbar intervertebral foramen, and may contribute directly to foraminal stenosis when pathological?

. Ligamentum flavum
. Superior articular process
. Intervertebral disc and posterior aspect of the vertebral body
. Pars interarticularis
. Pedicle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligamentum flavum


Explanation

The anterior border of the lumbar intervertebral foramen is formed by the posterior aspect of the vertebral body and the intervertebral disc. Consequently, a disc herniation or loss of disc height directly narrows the foraminal space anteriorly.

Question 4390

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with severe back pain and right leg radiculopathy. MRI reveals a massive L4-L5 right-sided far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation. Which nerve root is most likely compressed by this specific lesion?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, an extraforaminal (far lateral) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that specific level. Therefore, an L4-L5 far lateral disc herniation will directly impinge upon the exiting L4 nerve root.

Question 4391

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old woman has local back pain and intense burning pain in her perianal region after being shot twice in the back. Motor and sensory examination of her lower extremities reveals no apparent deficit. She has present but decreased sensation in her perianal region, an intact anal wink, good rectal tone, and an intact bulbocavernosus reflex. Radiographs and CT scans are shown in Figures 3a through 3d. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

. Initiation of spinal cord injury steroid protocol
. MRI of the lumbar spine
. Immobilization in a thoracolumbosacral orthosis
. Removal of the metallic fragments via laminectomy
. Removal of the metallic fragments and posterior fusion with instrumentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Initiation of spinal cord injury steroid protocol


Explanation

Because the patient has an apparent compressive neuropathy secondary to the metallic fragments, removal of the fragments in this incomplete lesion at the cauda equina level can be expected to improve her sensory dysesthesias and pain. Steroids are not indicated in a root lesion secondary to a penetrating injury. MRI will have significant artifact effect and will not provide much additional information. The posterior bony elements are not significantly injured; therefore, stabilization is not indicated. Bracken MB, Shepard MJ, Holford TR: Administration of methylprednisolone for 24 or 48 hours or tirilazad mesylate for 48 hours in the treatment of acute spinal cord injury. JAMA 1997;277:1597-1604. Waters RL, Adkins RH: The effects of removal of bullet fragments retained in the spinal canal: A collaborative study by the National Spinal Cord Injury Model Systems. Spine 1991;16:934-939.

Question 4392

Topic: 6. Spine

Figure 4 shows the MRI scan of a patient who has had bilateral leg pain, weakness, diffuse numbness, and urinary retention for the past week. Examination reveals that motor strength is diffusely decreased, although it may be secondary to pain. The patient is numb throughout both legs, and reflexes in the lower extremities are absent. Rectal examination shows decreased tone, but voluntary tightening is present. Management should consist of

. physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 4 to 6 weeks.
. physical therapy, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 4 to 6 weeks, and methylprednisolone.
. epidural steroid injections.
. elective surgery.
. urgent surgery.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 4 to 6 weeks.


Explanation

The patient has a cauda equina syndrome. The fact that he has decreased rectal tone and urinary retention suggests the need for urgent surgery. Patients who are left untreated will have a poor prognosis for return of function. Although most patients who have insidious onset of symptoms with urinary retention will regain normal motor function following decompression, nearly one third will continue to have abnormal voiding patterns or sexual dysfunction of varying degrees. Kostuik JP, Harrington I, Alexander D, Rand W, Evans D: Cauda equina syndrome and lumbar disc herniation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:386-391.

Question 4393

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male falls from a ladder, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), what is the most appropriate management?

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing for 12 weeks
. Posterior spinal fusion
. Observation with serial radiographs
. Percutaneous kyphoplasty
. Standalone anterior lumbar interbody fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing for 12 weeks


Explanation

A TLICS score of 5 (Burst fracture = 2, Intact neurology = 0, PLC disrupted = 3) strongly favors operative management. Posterior spinal fusion is the gold standard for burst fractures with PLC disruption to restore mechanical stability.

Question 4394

Topic: 6. Spine

A 19-year-old male presents with unilateral distal upper extremity weakness and atrophy that distinctly spares the brachioradialis muscle. An MRI of the cervical spine taken in full flexion reveals forward displacement of the posterior dural sac. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
. Hirayama disease
. Klippel-Feil syndrome
. Syringomyelia
. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis


Explanation

Hirayama disease (monomelic amyotrophy) is a rare cervical myelopathy affecting young males, characterized by distal upper extremity weakness sparing the brachioradialis (oblique amyotrophy). Diagnosis is confirmed by a flexion MRI showing anterior displacement of the posterior dura.

Question 4395

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man with advanced ankylosing spondylitis sustains a minor ground-level fall. He complains of back pain but is neurologically intact on presentation. Twelve hours later, he develops progressive lower extremity weakness. CT shows a non-displaced "chalk-stick" fracture at T8. What is the most likely cause of his neurologic deterioration?

. Progressive kyphotic deformity
. Spinal epidural hematoma
. Conus medullaris syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Vertebral artery dissection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Progressive kyphotic deformity


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis who sustain spinal fractures are at a uniquely high risk for developing spinal epidural hematomas. This complication must be suspected in any AS patient with a fracture who demonstrates delayed or progressive neurologic deficits.

Question 4396

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In a patient presenting with L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, which of the following MRI findings is most highly predictive of segmental instability and the likelihood of future slip progression?

. Facet joint effusion greater than 1.5 mm
. L5 sacralization
. Preserved disc height greater than 10 mm
. Coronal orientation of the facet joints
. Multifidus muscle atrophy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Facet joint effusion greater than 1.5 mm


Explanation

A facet joint effusion of > 1.5 mm on T2-weighted axial MRI is highly predictive of segmental instability in degenerative spondylolisthesis. Sagittal (not coronal) orientation of the facets is also a known risk factor for degenerative slips.

Question 4397

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

To establish a definitive radiographic diagnosis of Scheuermann's kyphosis based on the classic Sorensen criteria, a patient must demonstrate anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in a minimum of how many consecutive vertebrae?

. 1
. 2
. 3
. 4
. 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1


Explanation

The Sorensen criteria for Scheuermann's disease require the presence of anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in three or more adjacent vertebral bodies. Additional findings often include Schmorl's nodes and irregular endplates.

Question 4398

Topic: 6. Spine

In a 3-year-old child diagnosed with congenital scoliosis, which of the following anomalous vertebral patterns carries the highest natural risk of rapid curve progression?

. Fully segmented hemivertebra
. Incarcerated hemivertebra
. Block vertebra
. Unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral fully segmented hemivertebra
. Unilateral unsegmented bar without a hemivertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fully segmented hemivertebra


Explanation

A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra at the same level possesses the highest risk for severe and rapid progression. This creates a severe growth imbalance, tethering one side while actively growing on the opposite.

Question 4399

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old diabetic male presents with severe back pain, fever, and progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals a large ventral lumbar epidural abscess. What is the most common causative organism for this condition?

. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Escherichia coli
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Streptococcus pneumoniae


Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative organism for spinal epidural abscesses and vertebral osteomyelitis. Prompt recognition, appropriate antibiotics, and surgical decompression (if neurological deficits are present) are critical.

Question 4400

Topic: 6. Spine

In preoperative planning for adult spinal deformity correction, achieving optimal global sagittal balance heavily relies on the relationship between pelvic incidence (PI) and lumbar lordosis (LL). What is the generally accepted target formula for a successful correction?

. PI minus LL should be less than or equal to 10 degrees
. PI minus LL should be greater than 20 degrees
. LL should be exactly twice the PI
. LL should be 20 degrees less than PI
. PI and LL should have no specific mathematical correlation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PI minus LL should be less than or equal to 10 degrees


Explanation

Optimal sagittal balance in adult spinal deformity is traditionally achieved when the mismatch between Pelvic Incidence (PI) and Lumbar Lordosis (LL) is within 10 degrees (PI - LL ≤ 10 degrees). This minimizes compensatory mechanisms and improves clinical outcomes.