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Question 4281

Topic: 6. Spine

According to the ASIA Impairment Scale, a patient who has sensory preservation but no motor function preserved below the neurological level of injury is classified as:

. ASIA A
. ASIA B
. ASIA C
. ASIA D
. ASIA E

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ASIA A


Explanation

ASIA B designates a sensory incomplete spinal cord injury where sensory function is preserved (including S4-S5), but motor function is completely absent below the neurological level.

Question 4282

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. He is comatose with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6. A CT scan demonstrates a right-sided C5-C6 unilateral facet dislocation. What is the most appropriate next step in management regarding his cervical spine injury?

. Application of cranial tongs and immediate closed traction reduction
. MRI of the cervical spine
. Immediate anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. Immediate posterior cervical open reduction and fusion
. Immobilization in a hard collar and observation until he awakens

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Application of cranial tongs and immediate closed traction reduction


Explanation

In an obtunded or unexaminable patient with a cervical facet dislocation, an MRI must be obtained prior to reduction. This is to rule out a compressive disc herniation that could cause severe neurologic injury upon reduction.

Question 4283

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking and is relieved by leaning forward over a shopping cart. Examination reveals normal pedal pulses. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on electrodiagnostic testing (EMG/NCS)?

. Demyelinating peripheral neuropathy with conduction block
. Myopathic changes in proximal muscle groups
. Multilevel radiculopathy or paraspinal muscle denervation
. Normal conduction velocities with completely absent F-waves
. Focal slowing of conduction velocity across the fibular head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Demyelinating peripheral neuropathy with conduction block


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for neurogenic claudication caused by lumbar spinal stenosis. EMG/NCS in patients with symptomatic lumbar stenosis typically demonstrates multi-root, bilateral radicular changes or multilevel paraspinal denervation.

Question 4284

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 16-year-old male presents with increasing thoracic kyphosis and mid-back pain. Radiographs reveal anterior wedging of multiple thoracic vertebrae. According to the Sorensen criteria, what specific radiographic finding is required to formally diagnose classic Scheuermann's kyphosis?

. At least 3 consecutive vertebrae with >5 degrees of anterior wedging
. At least 2 consecutive vertebrae with >10 degrees of anterior wedging
. A total structural Cobb angle > 45 degrees with any wedging present
. A kyphosis apex at T10 with at least 1 vertebral wedge > 5 degrees
. The presence of Schmorl's nodes in at least 4 contiguous levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. At least 3 consecutive vertebrae with >5 degrees of anterior wedging


Explanation

The classic Sorensen criteria for Scheuermann's disease require the presence of at least 3 consecutive thoracic vertebrae demonstrating greater than 5 degrees of anterior wedging each.

Question 4285

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 45-year-old construction worker falls 15 feet, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact on presentation. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following radiographic parameters is the strongest indication for operative stabilization over nonoperative brace management?

. 15% loss of anterior vertebral body height
. 10 degrees of focal sagittal kyphosis
. Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex
. 20% central canal compromise
. The presence of a unilateral laminar fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 15% loss of anterior vertebral body height


Explanation

Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) indicates a grossly unstable fracture pattern resulting in a TLICS score of 4 or higher. While severe canal compromise or severe kyphosis are factors, definitive PLC disruption is a clear indication for surgery.

Question 4286

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 72-year-old woman complains of deteriorating handwriting, clumsiness in her hands, and unsteadiness when walking in the dark. On examination, rapidly flicking the distal phalanx of her middle finger into flexion causes a reflex flexion of her thumb and index finger. What is the name of this clinical sign?

. Babinski sign
. Lhermitte's sign
. Hoffmann's sign
. Spurling's sign
. Oppenheim's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Babinski sign


Explanation

Hoffmann's sign is elicited by flicking the distal phalanx of the middle finger, producing reflex flexion of the thumb and index finger. It is an upper motor neuron sign highly suggestive of cervical spondylotic myelopathy in this clinical context.

Question 4287

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 80-year-old male trips and falls, striking his chin. CT of the cervical spine shows a fracture through the base of the odontoid process extending down into the cancellous body of C2. According to the Anderson and D'Alonzo classification, what type of fracture is this, and what is the typical initial treatment for a neurologically intact elderly patient?

. Type I, rigid cervical collar
. Type II, halo vest immobilization
. Type III, rigid cervical collar
. Type II, anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Type III, posterior C1-C2 instrumental fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I, rigid cervical collar


Explanation

A fracture extending into the cancellous body of C2 is a Type III odontoid fracture. In both young and elderly neurologically intact patients, these fractures typically heal well with nonoperative rigid cervical collar immobilization.

Question 4288

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man with pre-existing cervical stenosis is involved in a rear-end collision, sustaining a hyperextension injury. He presents with profound weakness in his hands and arms (1/5 strength), but retains functional 4/5 strength in his legs and is able to walk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sรฉquard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in a patient with a stenotic cervical canal. It is characterized by disproportionately greater motor impairment in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.

Question 4289

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old male presents with severe right anterior thigh pain and weakness in knee extension. An MRI of the lumbar spine reveals a far-lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed by this specific herniation?

. L2
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L2


Explanation

Far-lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniations compress the exiting nerve root at the level of the disc space. Therefore, an L3-L4 far-lateral herniation will compress the exiting L3 nerve root.

Question 4290

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male with long-standing Ankylosing Spondylitis presents with a severe, rigid chin-on-chest cervicothoracic kyphotic deformity. He is unable to see straight ahead. Which of the following surgical procedures is the standard, safest choice at the cervicothoracic junction to correct this deformity?

. C7 opening wedge extension osteotomy
. Anterior C5-C6 corpectomy and plating
. C2-C3 posterior column osteotomy
. T4 pedicle subtraction osteotomy
. Multiple Smith-Petersen osteotomies at C3-C6

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7 opening wedge extension osteotomy


Explanation

A C7 opening wedge extension osteotomy is the classic procedure to correct severe cervicothoracic kyphosis in ankylosing spondylitis. C7 is chosen due to the relatively wide spinal canal and the mobility of the C8 nerve root, minimizing neurologic risk.

Question 4291

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old competitive gymnast presents with chronic low back pain. Radiographs demonstrate a grade II L5-S1 spondylolisthesis. Which of the following pathoanatomical features is characteristic of this condition (isthmic spondylolisthesis) as opposed to degenerative spondylolisthesis?

. An intact pars interarticularis with marked facet arthropathy
. The condition most commonly occurring at the L4-L5 level
. A defect, fracture, or elongation of the pars interarticularis
. Sagittally oriented facet joints permitting forward translation
. Frequent, rapid progression to Grade IV in adulthood

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An intact pars interarticularis with marked facet arthropathy


Explanation

Isthmic spondylolisthesis is characterized by a structural defect or elongation (stress fracture) of the pars interarticularis, most commonly at L5-S1. Degenerative spondylolisthesis features an intact pars and most frequently occurs at L4-L5.

Question 4292

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male undergoes a complex 9-hour posterior spinal fusion for adult spinal deformity. Upon waking, he complains of severe bilateral vision loss. A diagnosis of postoperative visual loss (POVL) is made. What is the most common etiology of POVL following prolonged posterior spine surgery?

. Central retinal artery occlusion
. Ischemic optic neuropathy
. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
. Cortical blindness from occipital stroke
. Bilateral retinal detachment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central retinal artery occlusion


Explanation

Ischemic optic neuropathy (ION) is the most common cause of postoperative visual loss (POVL) following prolonged spine surgery in the prone position. Major risk factors include prolonged operative time, significant blood loss, and massive fluid resuscitation.

Question 4293

Topic: 6. Spine

According to the Canadian C-Spine Rules, which of the following is considered a "high-risk" factor that strictly mandates obtaining cervical spine radiography in an alert, stable trauma patient?

. Age 65 years or older
. Delayed onset of neck pain
. Simple rear-end motor vehicle collision
. Absence of midline cervical tenderness
. Ability to comfortably sit in the emergency department

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age 65 years or older


Explanation

The Canadian C-Spine Rules identify age 65 or older, a dangerous mechanism (e.g., fall >3 feet, axial load), or the presence of extremity paresthesias as major high-risk factors that unconditionally mandate cervical imaging.

Question 4294

Topic: Cervical Spine

The off-label use of recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) in anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) has been associated with a significantly increased risk of which of the following life-threatening postoperative complications?

. Permanent recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
. Delayed esophageal perforation
. Massive prevertebral soft tissue swelling and airway compromise
. Symptomatic pseudarthrosis at the grafted level
. Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Permanent recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy


Explanation

The use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine is strongly linked to profound prevertebral soft tissue swelling. This rapid, massive edema can lead to catastrophic postoperative airway compromise and severe dysphagia.

Question 4295

Topic: 6. Spine

A 12-year-old male with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy (Gross Motor Function Classification System level V) presents with a severe 90-degree sweeping thoracolumbar scoliosis and significant pelvic obliquity. When planning surgical correction and posterior fusion, what is the most appropriate distal extent of the instrumented fusion?

. L4
. L5
. The sacrum/pelvis
. The lowest instrumented vertebra that is neutral and stable
. The apex of the structural lumbar curve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4


Explanation

In completely non-ambulatory patients with neuromuscular scoliosis and marked pelvic obliquity, fusion must typically extend to the sacrum and pelvis. This is necessary to fully correct the obliquity, level the pelvis, and provide a stable, balanced sitting posture.

Question 4296

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old man sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 5 mm of posterior displacement after a fall. He is neurologically intact. Non-operative management with a halo vest is being considered. Compared to rigid cervical collar immobilization, halo vest placement in this specific patient population is associated with a significantly higher risk of:

. Mortality
. Nonunion
. Neurologic decline
. Cervical osteomyelitis
. Dysphagia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mortality


Explanation

In elderly patients (typically >65 years) with Type II odontoid fractures, halo vest immobilization is associated with significantly higher morbidity and mortality, primarily from respiratory complications, compared to rigid cervical collars or surgery.

Question 4297

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man with neurogenic claudication secondary to L4-L5 spinal stenosis fails conservative management and undergoes a lumbar decompression. During the procedure, which of the following anatomic structures must be partially resected to adequately decompress the traversing nerve root in the lateral recess?

. Superior articular process
. Inferior articular process
. Pars interarticularis
. Ligamentum flavum only
. Pedicle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior articular process


Explanation

The lateral recess is bordered laterally by the pedicle, posteriorly by the superior articular facet, and anteriorly by the vertebral body and disc. Resection of the medial aspect of the superior articular process is required to decompress the traversing nerve root.

Question 4298

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old man falls from a height and sustains an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. Upright radiographs demonstrate 20 degrees of kyphosis and 40% loss of anterior vertebral body height. CT shows 30% canal compromise. The posterior ligamentous complex is intact on MRI. What is the most appropriate management?

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) brace mobilization
. Short-segment posterior instrumentation without fusion
. Long-segment posterior instrumentation and fusion
. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior laminectomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) brace mobilization


Explanation

In neurologically intact patients with thoracolumbar burst fractures and an intact posterior ligamentous complex, non-operative management with a TLSO brace or cast provides equivalent long-term clinical outcomes compared to surgery.

Question 4299

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man presents with progressive bilateral hand clumsiness and a broad-based gait. Physical examination reveals positive Hoffman signs bilaterally. MRI shows multi-level cervical stenosis from C3-C6 with focal cord signal changes. Which of the following is the most reliable clinical indicator of a poor prognosis for neurologic recovery after surgical decompression?

. Duration of symptoms greater than 12 months
. Patient age over 50 years
. Presence of T2 hyperintensity on MRI without T1 changes
. Presence of a positive Babinski sign
. Severe preoperative neck pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Duration of symptoms greater than 12 months


Explanation

A prolonged duration of symptoms (typically >12 to 18 months) prior to surgery is one of the strongest negative predictors for neurologic recovery in cervical spondylotic myelopathy. T1 hypointensity (not T2 hyperintensity alone) also portends a poor prognosis.

Question 4300

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old woman is involved in a motor vehicle accident. She is awake and alert. Neurologic exam reveals 0/5 strength in the bilateral triceps and hand intrinsics, with absent sensation below C7. Radiographs show a bilateral C6-C7 facet dislocation. MRI cannot be obtained within the next 4 hours. What is the most appropriate next step?

. Immediate anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. Immediate posterior cervical fusion
. Closed awake cranial traction for reduction
. Intravenous methylprednisolone infusion
. Application of a hard collar and wait for MRI transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate anterior cervical discectomy and fusion


Explanation

In an awake, cooperative, and examinable patient with a cervical facet dislocation and a severe neurologic deficit, immediate closed reduction with cranial traction is indicated to relieve spinal cord compression as rapidly as possible, without waiting for an MRI.