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Question 4261

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old man is involved in a low-speed motor vehicle collision. CT scan of the cervical spine reveals a displaced Type II odontoid fracture. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with nonunion if treated conservatively with a halo vest?

. Age greater than 50 years
. Displacement less than 2 mm
. Anterior displacement
. Concurrent atlas arch fracture
. Female sex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age greater than 50 years


Explanation

Risk factors for nonunion of Type II odontoid fractures include age greater than 50 years, displacement greater than 5 mm, posterior displacement, and delay in treatment. Advanced age is widely considered the strongest single predictor of nonunion.

Question 4262

Topic: 6. Spine

A 16-year-old gymnast complains of chronic lower back pain. Radiographs reveal an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. If surgical fusion and reduction are indicated, what is the most common neurologic complication during the reduction of a high-grade slip?

. L4 nerve root stretch injury
. L5 nerve root stretch injury
. S1 nerve root transection
. Cauda equina syndrome
. Pudendal nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 nerve root stretch injury


Explanation

The L5 nerve root is most commonly injured due to a stretch injury during the surgical reduction of a high-grade L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. This occurs because the L5 root is tethered around the sacral ala.

Question 4263

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man with a long history of ankylosing spondylitis presents with new-onset neck pain after a minor ground-level fall. Initial plain radiographs are read as normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a soft collar and NSAIDs
. Reassurance and early physical therapy
. CT scan of the entire cervical spine
. Dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. MRI of the brain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge with a soft collar and NSAIDs


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at high risk for highly unstable extension-distraction fractures even after seemingly trivial trauma. If plain films are normal or equivocal, a CT scan or MRI of the spine is mandatory to rule out occult fractures.

Question 4264

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man is involved in a high-speed accident. CT scan shows a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) with severe angulation and minimal translation. The C2-C3 disc space is significantly widened. What is the Levine-Edwards classification of this injury?

. Type I
. Type II
. Type IIA
. Type III
. Type IV

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I


Explanation

A Levine-Edwards Type IIA Hangman's fracture is characterized by severe angulation with minimal translation and abnormal widening of the C2-C3 disc space. It is caused by flexion-distraction forces and longitudinal traction is contraindicated.

Question 4265

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old man presents with right arm pain, numbness in his thumb, and weakness in wrist extension. The brachioradialis reflex is diminished. Which cervical nerve root is most likely affected?

. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C4


Explanation

C6 radiculopathy typically presents with pain and numbness radiating to the thumb, weakness in wrist extension and elbow flexion, and a diminished brachioradialis reflex.

Question 4266

Topic: 6. Spine

A 48-year-old man presents with acute severe right leg pain following heavy lifting. An MRI demonstrates a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. Therefore, an L4-L5 far lateral disc herniation compresses the L4 nerve root.

Question 4267

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound weakness in bilateral deltoid and biceps muscles without new sensory changes. What is the most widely accepted pathophysiology of this complication?

. Iatrogenic thermal injury to the spinal cord
. C5 nerve root tethering due to spinal cord drift
. Postoperative epidural hematoma
. Malpositioned lateral mass screws
. Intraoperative cerebral ischemic event

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iatrogenic thermal injury to the spinal cord


Explanation

Postoperative C5 palsy is a well-known complication after cervical decompression. The most accepted theory is the posterior drift of the spinal cord following laminectomy, leading to tethering and stretch injury of the short C5 nerve roots.

Question 4268

Topic: 6. Spine

A 52-year-old diabetic patient presents with severe back pain, fever, and progressive bilateral lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals a continuous ventral epidural fluid collection from L1 to L4. What is the most commonly isolated organism in spontaneous spinal epidural abscesses?

. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Escherichia coli
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Streptococcus pneumoniae


Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is by far the most common causative organism for spontaneous spinal epidural abscesses and vertebral osteomyelitis, accounting for over 60% of culture-positive cases.

Question 4269

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 60-year-old woman with a 20-year history of rheumatoid arthritis requires elective total hip arthroplasty. Flexion-extension cervical radiographs reveal an anterior atlantodens interval (ADI) of 8 mm. She is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate management regarding her cervical spine prior to hip surgery?

. Proceed with hip surgery under general anesthesia with routine intubation
. Prophylactic halo vest placement
. Preoperative cervical MRI to evaluate the space available for the cord (SAC)
. Urgent occipitocervical fusion prior to hip surgery
. Postpone hip surgery indefinitely

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proceed with hip surgery under general anesthesia with routine intubation


Explanation

An ADI > 3.5 mm indicates atlantoaxial instability. In an RA patient with an ADI of 8 mm awaiting general anesthesia, a preoperative MRI is essential to evaluate the space available for the cord (SAC), as a SAC < 14 mm predicts a high risk of neurologic injury.

Question 4270

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old man with adult degenerative scoliosis presents with a 45-degree lumbar curve. Surgery is planned. To minimize the risk of proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK), what is an important intraoperative consideration regarding the upper instrumented vertebra (UIV)?

. End the construct at the apex of thoracic kyphosis
. Disrupt the supraspinous ligament at the UIV
. Stop the fusion at a segment with neutral sagittal alignment
. Use oversized pedicle screws at the UIV
. End the construct at L1 regardless of curve type

Correct Answer & Explanation

. End the construct at the apex of thoracic kyphosis


Explanation

To minimize the risk of proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK) in adult spinal deformity, the upper instrumented vertebra (UIV) should be chosen at a stable, sagittally neutral segment. The posterior tension band (interspinous ligaments) must also be carefully preserved.

Question 4271

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old intravenous drug user presents with mid-back pain and fevers. MRI shows T8-T9 disc space narrowing with endplate destruction and a small epidural phlegmon without cord compression. The patient is neurologically intact. Blood cultures grow MRSA. What is the primary treatment?

. 6 weeks of directed intravenous antibiotics
. Anterior debridement and strut grafting
. Posterior laminectomy and debridement
. CT-guided biopsy of the disc space
. Percutaneous pedicle screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 6 weeks of directed intravenous antibiotics


Explanation

In a neurologically intact patient with pyogenic spondylodiscitis, no mechanical instability, and a known organism from blood cultures, the mainstay of treatment is a prolonged course of culture-directed intravenous antibiotics.

Question 4272

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 25-year-old woman presents to the trauma bay after a high-speed motor vehicle collision where she was wearing only a lap belt. She has a large abdominal ecchymosis. Radiographs reveal a transverse fracture through the pedicles, pars, and vertebral body of L2. What associated injury must be heavily suspected?

. Aortic transection
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Splenic laceration
. Renal artery thrombosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aortic transection


Explanation

A Chance fracture (flexion-distraction injury) in the setting of a lap-belt mechanism is highly associated with concurrent intra-abdominal hollow viscus injuries (e.g., small bowel rupture), which occur in up to 50% of these cases.

Question 4273

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old man presents with severe neck pain and weakness after a fall where he struck his forehead. Examination reveals significant motor weakness in the bilateral upper extremities, particularly the hands, with relatively preserved strength in the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Brown-Séquard syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Cauda equina syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in a patient with pre-existing cervical spondylosis, causing disproportionately greater upper extremity motor impairment compared to the lower extremities.

Question 4274

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains an isolated Jefferson (C1 ring) fracture. The 'Rule of Spence' on an open-mouth odontoid radiograph evaluates the combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2. Overhang greater than what measurement suggests a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament?

. 3.0 mm
. 4.5 mm
. 5.0 mm
. 6.9 mm
. 9.0 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3.0 mm


Explanation

The Rule of Spence dictates that a combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than 6.9 mm (or 8.1 mm with radiographic magnification) strongly suggests transverse ligament incompetence.

Question 4275

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following spinopelvic parameters is a fixed morphological parameter that is NOT altered by patient positioning or spinal alignment changes?

. Pelvic tilt
. Sacral slope
. Pelvic incidence
. Lumbar lordosis
. Sagittal vertical axis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic tilt


Explanation

Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed anatomical parameter that does not change with positioning. It is the sum of pelvic tilt (PT) and sacral slope (SS), which are both dynamic.

Question 4276

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with a far lateral (extra-foraminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed, and what clinical finding would be expected?

. L4 root; weakness in knee extension
. L4 root; weakness in ankle plantarflexion
. L5 root; weakness in great toe extension
. L5 root; weakness in ankle plantarflexion
. S1 root; loss of the Achilles reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 root; weakness in knee extension


Explanation

A far lateral disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the exiting L4 nerve root, leading to L4 radiculopathy. This typically presents with quadriceps weakness (decreased knee extension) and a diminished patellar reflex.

Question 4277

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old woman undergoes a posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion for cervical myelopathy. Postoperatively on day 2, she develops isolated weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and elbow flexion. There are no sensory changes or leg weakness. What is the most likely cause of her new deficit?

. C4 nerve root palsy
. C5 nerve root palsy
. Epidural hematoma
. Spinal cord contusion
. C6 nerve root palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C4 nerve root palsy


Explanation

C5 palsy is a known complication following posterior cervical decompression (laminectomy or laminoplasty). It is thought to occur due to posterior shift of the spinal cord causing tethering of the short C5 nerve root.

Question 4278

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a low-energy fall. He reports new-onset back pain but has intact neurology. Initial plain radiographs are inconclusive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with NSAIDs and physical therapy
. Flexion-extension radiographs of the spine
. CT scan of the entire spine
. Bone scan
. DEXA scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge with NSAIDs and physical therapy


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at high risk for highly unstable, frequently occult spinal fractures even after minor trauma. A CT scan of the entire spine is the gold standard to rule out a fracture in this population.

Question 4279

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with a paracentral disc herniation at L5-S1. He presents with severe leg pain, numbness along the lateral aspect of his foot, and weakness. Which physical examination finding corresponds to this specific level of compression?

. Weakness in knee extension
. Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion
. Weakness in extensor hallucis longus
. Weakness in ankle plantarflexion
. Decreased patellar reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in knee extension


Explanation

A paracentral disc herniation at L5-S1 compresses the traversing S1 nerve root. S1 radiculopathy classically presents with weakness in ankle plantarflexion (gastrocnemius/soleus) and a diminished Achilles reflex.

Question 4280

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old patient undergoes a T10 to pelvis posterior spinal fusion for adult degenerative scoliosis. One year later, they complain of severe back pain and leaning forward. Radiographs show failure of the proximal construct with kyphosis above the upper instrumented vertebra. What is this complication called?

. Proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK)
. Flatback syndrome
. Pseudarthrosis
. Adjacent segment disease
. Coronal decompensation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK)


Explanation

Proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK) is a common complication after long spinal fusions, characterized by an abnormal kyphotic angle developing between the upper instrumented vertebra (UIV) and the vertebrae immediately proximal to it.