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Question 4181

Topic: 6. Spine

In the evaluation of infantile idiopathic scoliosis, which of the following radiographic parameters is the most reliable predictor of curve progression?

. Cobb angle > 10 degrees
. Rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) > 20 degrees
. Apical vertebral rotation of grade 1
. Risser sign of 0
. Thoracic kyphosis > 40 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobb angle > 10 degrees


Explanation

The rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is the most reliable predictor of progression in infantile idiopathic scoliosis. An RVAD > 20 degrees strongly indicates a progressive curve requiring intervention.

Question 4182

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old boy undergoes posterior spinal fusion for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. During deformity correction, somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) are lost in the bilateral lower extremities, while motor evoked potentials (MEPs) remain intact. What is the most likely cause?

. Anterior spinal artery syndrome
. Stretching of the posterior columns
. Pedicle screw violation of the lateral cord
. Anesthetic fade
. Loss of peripheral nerve stimulation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior spinal artery syndrome


Explanation

SSEPs monitor the posterior columns (sensory), while MEPs monitor the anterior corticospinal tracts (motor). Loss of SSEPs with intact MEPs suggests compromise of the posterior columns, often due to direct mechanical stretching or compression during correction.

Question 4183

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 5-year-old boy presents with a 40-degree left thoracic scoliosis. MRI reveals a syrinx extending from T4 to T10. Which of the following curve characteristics most strongly suggested the presence of an underlying neural axis abnormality?

. Male gender
. Age of presentation
. Left thoracic curve pattern
. Curve magnitude > 30 degrees
. Apical rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Male gender


Explanation

Left thoracic curves, rapid progression, presentation at a young age, and associated neurologic findings are red flags in idiopathic scoliosis. A left thoracic curve warrants an MRI to rule out neuroaxial abnormalities like a syrinx or Chiari malformation.

Question 4184

Topic: 6. Spine

In a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, what is the most common indication for spinal fusion surgery for scoliosis?

. Curve magnitude reaching 20 degrees with a rapid growth spurt
. Curve magnitude exceeding 20-30 degrees in a wheelchair-dependent patient
. Prevention of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
. Improvement of independent ambulation
. Presence of rigid pelvic obliquity alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Curve magnitude reaching 20 degrees with a rapid growth spurt


Explanation

In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, spinal fusion is typically recommended when the curve exceeds 20 to 30 degrees in a non-ambulatory (wheelchair-dependent) patient. Surgery is performed early to halt progression, maintain sitting balance, and prevent severe pulmonary decline.

Question 4185

Topic: 6. Spine

An 8-year-old girl with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 presents with a sharp, short-segment thoracic scoliosis of 45 degrees. Radiographs show rib penciling and vertebral scalloping. What is the recommended treatment?

. Milwaukee brace for 23 hours a day
. Boston brace for nighttime wear only
. Anterior and posterior spinal fusion
. Growing rod instrumentation
. Observation with yearly clinical exams

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Milwaukee brace for 23 hours a day


Explanation

Dystrophic scoliosis in NF-1 is characterized by short, sharp curves, rib penciling, and dural ectasia. These curves progress rapidly and do not respond to bracing; early anterior and posterior spinal fusion is recommended to achieve solid arthrodesis.

Question 4186

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old girl with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis has a major thoracic curve of 55 degrees. On the lateral radiograph, her thoracic kyphosis is measured at +15 degrees. According to the Lenke classification, what is her sagittal modifier?

. Minus (-), because kyphosis is < 10 degrees
. Normal (N), because kyphosis is between +10 and +40 degrees
. Plus (+), because kyphosis is > 10 degrees
. Normal (N), because kyphosis is between 0 and +20 degrees
. Minus (-), because kyphosis is < 20 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Minus (-), because kyphosis is < 10 degrees


Explanation

The Lenke classification sagittal modifiers are based on the T5-T12 thoracic kyphosis: minus (-) is < +10 degrees, normal (N) is +10 to +40 degrees, and plus (+) is > +40 degrees.

Question 4187

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a 25-degree left thoracic curve. The rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is measured at 25 degrees. What is the expected natural history of this condition?

. Spontaneous resolution without treatment
. High likelihood of curve progression
. Progression only during the adolescent growth spurt
. Improvement with physical therapy
. Unlikely to progress past 30 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spontaneous resolution without treatment


Explanation

In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, a rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta > 20 degrees strongly predicts a progressive curve. These progressive curves often require early intervention with serial Mehta casting.

Question 4188

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following congenital spinal anomalies has the highest rate of progression and warrants early prophylactic in situ fusion?

. Block vertebra
. Single fully segmented hemivertebra
. Unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra
. Butterfly vertebra
. Wedge vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Block vertebra


Explanation

A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra creates a severe growth imbalance. This deformity has the highest progression rate among congenital scoliosis types and requires early prophylactic surgical fusion.

Question 4189

Topic: 6. Spine

You are evaluating a 14-month-old boy with infantile idiopathic scoliosis. Which of the following radiographic parameters most reliably predicts the likelihood of curve progression?

. Cobb angle > 15 degrees
. Apical vertebral rotation of Grade I
. Rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) > 20 degrees
. Presence of a left-sided thoracic curve
. Pelvic obliquity > 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobb angle > 15 degrees


Explanation

Mehta's rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) is the most critical prognostic indicator for infantile idiopathic scoliosis. An RVAD greater than 20 degrees strongly predicts curve progression, whereas an RVAD less than 20 degrees suggests likely spontaneous resolution.

Question 4190

Topic: 6. Spine

A 3-year-old girl is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra in the lower thoracic spine. Which of the following diagnostic screening studies is most critical during her initial systemic evaluation?

. Transthoracic echocardiogram
. Renal ultrasound
. Pulmonary function tests
. Genetic microarray
. DEXA scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transthoracic echocardiogram


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is strongly associated with genitourinary anomalies (up to 30% of patients), most commonly a unilateral absent kidney. A renal ultrasound and total spine MRI are critical components of the initial diagnostic workup.

Question 4191

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old boy presents with a 35-degree right thoracic curve. An MRI of the entire spine is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

. Observation with radiographs every 6 months
. Nighttime-only bracing
. Full-time thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing
. Growth-friendly surgical instrumentation (e.g., growing rods)
. Posterior spinal fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with radiographs every 6 months


Explanation

This patient has Juvenile Idiopathic Scoliosis (JIS) with a moderate curve (25-50 degrees) and significant growth remaining. Full-time bracing is the standard of care to halt progression, while surgery is reserved for curves progressing beyond 50 degrees.

Question 4192

Topic: 6. Spine

Parents of a newborn diagnosed with congenital scoliosis are seeking counseling regarding the risk of curve progression. Which of the following vertebral anomalies carries the highest risk of rapid progression?

. Block vertebra
. Unsegmented hemivertebra
. Fully segmented hemivertebra
. Fully segmented hemivertebra with a contralateral unsegmented bar
. Wedge vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Block vertebra


Explanation

A fully segmented hemivertebra combined with a contralateral unsegmented bar creates a severe growth tether on one side and active growth on the other. This anomaly has the highest risk of rapid curve progression, often requiring early prophylactic fusion.

Question 4193

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old girl undergoes a posterior spinal fusion for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. On postoperative day 4, she develops significant abdominal distension, bilious emesis, and marked weight loss. Which anatomic structure is most likely directly compressing the obstructed bowel segment?

. Superior mesenteric artery
. Inferior mesenteric artery
. Celiac trunk
. Renal artery
. Portal vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior mesenteric artery


Explanation

This presentation is classic for Superior Mesenteric Artery (SMA) syndrome, a known complication of scoliosis surgery. Lengthening of the spine narrows the aortomesenteric angle, causing the SMA to compress the third portion of the duodenum.

Question 4194

Topic: 6. Spine

A 12-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy presents with a progressive 45-degree thoracolumbar scoliosis. His Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is currently 40% of predicted. What is the most appropriate management plan?

. Custom-molded TLSO bracing
. Observation until FVC drops below 25%
. Posterior spinal fusion extending to the pelvis
. Implantation of magnetically controlled growing rods
. Anterior release followed by a TLSO brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Custom-molded TLSO bracing


Explanation

In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, scoliosis progresses relentlessly, and bracing is poorly tolerated and ineffective. Posterior spinal fusion to the pelvis is recommended when curves reach 20-30 degrees, ideally while the FVC is still >30-35%, to minimize perioperative pulmonary complications.

Question 4195

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-month-old boy is diagnosed with infantile idiopathic scoliosis. He has a 35-degree left thoracic curve. Radiographs demonstrate a rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD, or Mehta's angle) of 25 degrees. What is the most appropriate management?

. Observation with repeat radiographs in 1 year
. Physical therapy targeting core strengthening
. Serial derotational (Mehta) casting
. Insertion of vertical expandable prosthetic titanium rib (VEPTR)
. Immediate posterior spinal fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with repeat radiographs in 1 year


Explanation

An RVAD greater than 20 degrees in infantile idiopathic scoliosis is a strong predictor of curve progression. Early intervention with serial derotational casting (Mehta casting) has been shown to successfully halt progression and potentially cure the deformity.

Question 4196

Topic: 6. Spine

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra. Which of the following imaging studies is most critical to obtain during the initial comprehensive evaluation?

. MRI of the cervical spine
. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram
. CT scan of the chest
. DEXA scan
. Standing full-length spine radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the cervical spine


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is highly associated with VACTERL anomalies, occurring in up to 60% of cases. Evaluating for concurrent genitourinary and cardiac anomalies using renal ultrasound and an echocardiogram is essential during the initial workup.

Question 4197

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-month-old boy is noted to have a 25-degree left thoracic curve. Radiographs indicate a rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta of 25 degrees. What is the most appropriate management?

. Observation alone
. Serial Mehta casting
. Posterior spinal fusion
. VEPTR insertion
. Physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation alone


Explanation

Infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta greater than 20 degrees has a high likelihood of malignant progression. Serial Mehta casting is the appropriate treatment to control and potentially cure the progressive curve.

Question 4198

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis and a completely fused lumbar spine is undergoing a total hip arthroplasty. How does his stiff spinopelvic anatomy alter the typical acetabular component positioning to prevent posterior dislocation?

. The cup should be placed in more retroversion
. The cup should be placed in less inclination
. The cup should be placed in more anteversion
. The cup should be placed with increased lateral offset
. No change in cup positioning is required

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The cup should be placed in more retroversion


Explanation

A stiff lumbar spine prevents normal posterior pelvic tilt during sitting, maintaining the acetabulum in a relatively retroverted position. To avoid anterior impingement and posterior dislocation, the acetabular cup must be placed in greater anteversion.

Question 4199

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with severe spinopelvic stiffness secondary to ankylosing spondylitis is evaluated for a total hip arthroplasty. The patient's pelvis is fixed in a posterior pelvic tilt. How does this fixed deformity affect the functional orientation of the acetabulum when the patient transitions from sitting to standing?

. It causes functional retroversion of the acetabulum.
. It causes functional anteversion of the acetabulum.
. It decreases the abduction angle of the acetabulum.
. It has no effect on functional acetabular version.
. It protects the hip from anterior dislocation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It causes functional retroversion of the acetabulum.


Explanation

A posterior pelvic tilt increases the functional anteversion and inclination of the acetabulum. In patients with stiff spines unable to adapt, fixing the cup in standard anatomical version may lead to excessive functional anteversion, risking anterior dislocation in extension.

Question 4200

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

An extensively porous-coated, cylindrically fully coated diaphyseal engaging stem is used in revision hip arthroplasty. To achieve predictable long-term biologic fixation (osseointegration), what is the minimum required distance of diaphyseal scratch fit?

. 1-2 cm
. 4-6 cm
. 8-10 cm
. 12-14 cm
. Cortical contact is not required for porous coated stems

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1-2 cm


Explanation

Extensively porous-coated cylindrical stems rely on initial mechanical stability in the diaphysis to allow for subsequent bone ingrowth. A rigid isthmic 'scratch fit' over a minimum distance of 4 to 6 cm is required to achieve this stability.