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Question 4081

Topic: 6. Spine

In the normal lumbar spine anatomy, the exiting nerve root travels through the intervertebral foramen in what relation to the pedicle of the corresponding numbered vertebral body?

. Superior
. Inferior
. Directly medial
. Directly anterior
. Through the pars interarticularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, the exiting nerve root travels inferior to the pedicle of the corresponding vertebra (e.g., the L4 nerve root exits below the L4 pedicle). This relationship is critical during foraminal decompression and pedicle screw placement.

Question 4082

Topic: 6. Spine

During a lateral transpsoas approach (LLIF) to the lumbar spine at the L4-L5 level, the surgeon uses neuromonitoring to map the lumbar plexus. At this specific level, where is the lumbar plexus typically located relative to the psoas major muscle?

. Anterior third
. Middle third
. Posterior third
. Anterior to the psoas fascia
. Medial to the vertebral body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior third


Explanation

The elements of the lumbar plexus migrate anteriorly as they travel caudally. At the L4-L5 disc space, the plexus is typically located within the posterior third of the psoas muscle, necessitating careful anterior retractor placement.

Question 4083

Topic: 6. Spine

In the normal anatomical course of the cervical spine, the vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which vertebral level?

. C2
. C3
. C4
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C2


Explanation

The vertebral artery classically arises from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at C6 in approximately 90% of individuals, bypassing the transverse foramen of C7.

Question 4084

Topic: 6. Spine

When placing a pedicle screw at the L5 level, the starting point is identified at the intersection of the pars interarticularis, superior articular process, and transverse process. What is the typical medial angulation required to safely traverse the L5 pedicle?

. 0-5 degrees
. 10-15 degrees
. 25-30 degrees
. 40-45 degrees
. 50-55 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 0-5 degrees


Explanation

The required medial angulation for pedicle screw placement increases caudally in the lumbar spine. L1 requires approximately 5-10 degrees, while L5 requires 25 to 30 degrees of medial trajectory.

Question 4085

Topic: 6. Spine

During corrective spinal deformity surgery, the anterior spinal cord is vulnerable to ischemic injury. Which vascular territory is responsible for supplying the anterior spinal artery in the lower two-thirds of the spinal cord?

. Artery of Adamkiewicz
. Vertebral arteries
. Upper thoracic segmental arteries
. Lumbar arteries L3-L5
. Internal iliac arteries

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of Adamkiewicz


Explanation

The artery of Adamkiewicz, typically arising on the left side between T8 and L1, is the major blood supply to the lower two-thirds of the anterior spinal cord. Injury causes anterior spinal artery syndrome.

Question 4086

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), the longus colli muscles are elevated to define the lateral margins. Overzealous lateral dissection and retraction past the longus colli places which structure at immediate risk?

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Vertebral artery
. Sympathetic trunk
. Phrenic nerve
. Vagus nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve


Explanation

The cervical sympathetic trunk lies directly on the longus colli muscle, lateral to the medial border. Aggressive lateral dissection or lateral retractor blade placement can injure the trunk, resulting in Horner syndrome.

Question 4087

Topic: 6. Spine

During the insertion of a thoracic pedicle screw at T7, the surgeon inadvertently directs the screw too far laterally, breaching the lateral wall of the pedicle. What anatomic structure is at greatest risk of direct injury?

. Spinal cord
. Aorta
. Pleura
. Azygos vein
. Sympathetic chain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal cord


Explanation

The pleura and lungs lie immediately lateral to the thoracic pedicles. A lateral breach of the thoracic pedicle places the pleural space at high risk, potentially causing a pneumothorax.

Question 4088

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), aggressive lateral dissection places the vertebral artery at risk. In standard human anatomy, the vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

. C3
. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C3


Explanation

The V2 segment of the vertebral artery typically ascends through the transverse foramina beginning at the C6 level in approximately 90% of individuals. Awareness of this anatomy is critical to prevent catastrophic bleeding during lateral dissection in anterior cervical spine surgery.

Question 4089

Topic: 6. Spine



A 60-year-old man undergoes L4-L5 posterior spinal fusion. What is the classic anatomical landmark for the starting point of an L4 pedicle screw?

. The intersection of the pars interarticularis and the inferior articular facet
. The intersection of a line bisecting the transverse process and the lateral margin of the superior articular facet
. The medial margin of the superior articular process at the level of the inferior endplate
. The midpoint of the superior articular facet
. The intersection of the inferior articular process and the lamina

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The intersection of the pars interarticularis and the inferior articular facet


Explanation

The traditional starting point for a lumbar pedicle screw is at the intersection of a vertical line along the lateral margin of the superior articular facet and a horizontal line bisecting the transverse process. This landmark safely guides the surgeon into the pedicle cylinder.

Question 4090

Topic: 6. Spine

An orthopaedic spine surgeon is performing an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). The surgeon must be aware of the vertebral artery anatomy. In most individuals, at what cervical vertebral level does the vertebral artery initially enter the transverse foramen?

. C3
. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C3


Explanation

The vertebral artery typically branches from the subclavian artery and enters the transverse foramen at the C6 level, bypassing the C7 transverse foramen.

Question 4091

Topic: 6. Spine

A surgeon is placing pedicle screws in the lumbar spine for a burst fracture. On an anteroposterior (AP) fluoroscopic view, the medial border of the pedicle corresponds to which structural boundary of the spinal canal?

. Anterior margin of the thecal sac
. Lateral wall of the spinal canal
. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Superior articular process
. Inferior endplate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior margin of the thecal sac


Explanation

On an AP radiograph, the medial border of the pedicle defines the lateral border of the spinal canal. Violating this border during pedicle screw preparation risks injury to the traversing nerve root.

Question 4092

Topic: 6. Spine
A 3-year-old girl is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. Neurological examination is normal. As part of her initial workup, which of the following screening modalities is mandatory?
. MRI of the brain
. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram
. Pulmonary function testing
. DEXA scan
. CT scan of the cervical spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is highly associated with VACTERL anomalies. Up to 30% of patients have genitourinary abnormalities and 10-15% have cardiac defects, making a renal ultrasound and echocardiogram mandatory during initial evaluation.

Question 4093

Topic: 6. Spine

A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Lateral cervical spine radiographs reveal a 3.5 mm anterior displacement of C2 on C3. Swischuk's line (posterior cervical line) passes 1 mm anterior to the anterior aspect of the posterior arch of C3. What is the most appropriate management?

. Rigid cervical collar and immediate MRI
. Halo vest immobilization
. Posterior C1-C3 fusion
. Observation and reassurance
. Closed reduction under general anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar and immediate MRI


Explanation

The findings describe physiologic pseudosubluxation of C2 on C3, common in children under 8 years old. A Swischuk line passing within 1.5 mm of the anterior aspect of the C3 posterior arch confirms this is a benign, physiologic variant requiring no intervention.

Question 4094

Topic: 6. Spine
A 2-year-old boy is diagnosed with congenital scoliosis secondary to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. Which of the following sets of screening studies is mandatory for this patient?
. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram
. Pulmonary function tests and skeletal survey
. Cervical spine flexion-extension films and CT chest
. Genetic microarray and metabolic panel
. DEXA scan and total spine MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal ultrasound and echocardiogram


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is frequently associated with VACTERL anomalies, necessitating evaluation of the genitourinary and cardiovascular systems. Up to 30% of these patients have structural urologic abnormalities (requiring renal ultrasound) and 10% have congenital heart defects (requiring an echocardiogram).

Question 4095

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-month-old infant is noted to have a left-sided thoracic scoliosis measuring 25 degrees. The Rib-Vertebral Angle Difference (RVAD) of Mehta is measured at 28 degrees. What does this finding indicate regarding the natural history of the curve?

. The curve is likely resolving and requires only observation
. The curve is highly likely to progress and warrants early intervention
. The patient definitely has an underlying tethered cord
. The patient requires an urgent anterior spinal fusion
. The curve is secondary to benign structural hemangiomas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The curve is likely resolving and requires only observation


Explanation

In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, an RVAD (Mehta's angle) greater than 20 degrees is highly predictive of curve progression. These progressive curves typically require intervention, such as serial Mehta casting or bracing, to prevent severe deformity.

Question 4096

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old boy with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) has a progressive neuromuscular scoliosis of 40 degrees. His Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is 45% of predicted. What is the recommended surgical strategy to optimize his quality of life and sitting balance?

. Observation until the curve reaches 60 degrees
. Anterior selective thoracic fusion
. Posterior spinal fusion stopping at L5
. Posterior spinal fusion extending to the pelvis
. Growing rod instrumentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation until the curve reaches 60 degrees


Explanation

In DMD, scoliosis progresses rapidly and impairs sitting balance and respiratory function. Fusion extending to the pelvis is recommended for curves >20-30 degrees while the FVC is still >35% to level the pelvis, maintain sitting balance, and minimize perioperative pulmonary morbidity.

Question 4097

Topic: 6. Spine
A 2-year-old boy is diagnosed with a congenital hemivertebra in the lower thoracic spine. Which of the following screening studies is most critically indicated in the initial workup?
. Renal ultrasound
. CT scan of the chest
. DEXA scan
. Brain MRI
. Electrocardiogram

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal ultrasound


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is frequently associated with VACTERL anomalies, notably genitourinary and intraspinal defects. A renal ultrasound and a whole-spine MRI are indicated to screen for missing kidneys, structural urinary tract defects, and a tethered cord.

Question 4098

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following fixed spinopelvic radiographic parameters is most strongly associated with the severity and progression risk of an isthmic spondylolisthesis in a pediatric patient?

. Pelvic tilt
. Sacral slope
. Pelvic incidence
. Lumbar lordosis
. Thoracic kyphosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic tilt


Explanation

High pelvic incidence strongly correlates with the severity and progression risk of isthmic spondylolisthesis. It is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the sum of pelvic tilt and sacral slope.

Question 4099

Topic: 6. Spine

An 8-month-old infant is evaluated for a left-sided thoracic spinal curve. Radiographs show an infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a Rib-Vertebra Angle Difference (RVAD) of 28 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Observation with yearly radiographs
. Physical therapy and stretching
. Anterior tethering
. Posterior spinal fusion
. Derotational (Mehta) casting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with yearly radiographs


Explanation

Infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a Rib-Vertebra Angle Difference (RVAD) > 20 degrees (Phase 2) indicates a highly progressive curve. Serial derotational casting (Mehta cast) is the standard of care to guide spinal growth and prevent progression.

Question 4100

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 7-year-old boy with Down syndrome undergoes routine cervical spine screening radiographs. Flexion-extension views reveal an Atlanto-Dens Interval (ADI) of 9 mm. He is neurologically intact and asymptomatic. What is the recommended management?

. Observation with repeat radiographs in 1 year
. Hard cervical collar for 6 weeks
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 arthrodesis
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with repeat radiographs in 1 year


Explanation

Atlantoaxial instability is common in Down syndrome. An ADI > 4.5 mm suggests instability, and an ADI > 8-10 mm or the presence of neurologic symptoms is an absolute indication for posterior C1-C2 arthrodesis.