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Question 4061

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 28-year-old construction worker falls from a scaffolding, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. Upright radiographs show 20 degrees of local kyphosis, and CT shows 40% canal compromise. The posterior ligamentous complex is intact on MRI. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate treatment?

. Posterior spinal fusion with pedicle screws
. Anterior corpectomy and plating
. Laminectomy and uninstrumented fusion
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) and early mobilization
. Percutaneous kyphoplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) and early mobilization


Explanation

This patient has a TLICS score of 2 (Morphology: burst = 2, PLC: intact = 0, Neurology: intact = 0). A total score of 3 or less typically indicates non-operative management, successfully treated with a TLSO or hyperextension brace.

Question 4062

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old female presents with persistent lower back pain and bilateral L5 radiculopathy that has failed 6 months of conservative management. Flexion-extension radiographs reveal a Grade II L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis with 5 mm of dynamic instability. MRI shows severe bilateral foraminal stenosis at L4-L5. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. L4-L5 decompressive laminectomy alone
. Microdiscectomy at L4-L5
. Stand-alone anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
. Interspinous process spacer placement
. Decompressive laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decompressive laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion


Explanation

In the setting of a symptomatic degenerative spondylolisthesis with dynamic instability, decompression alone has a high failure rate due to progressive slippage. Decompression combined with instrumented fusion is the standard of care to relieve symptoms and stabilize the segment.

Question 4063

Topic: 6. Spine

A 34-year-old male presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe lower back pain, bilateral sciatica, and perianal numbness after lifting a heavy box. He reports a recent episode of urinary incontinence, and his post-void residual volume is 350 mL. An emergent MRI of the lumbar spine demonstrates a massive central L4-L5 disc herniation. What is the most critical time frame for surgical decompression to optimize the recovery of bladder and bowel function?

. Within 6 hours
. Within 24 to 48 hours
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week
. Surgery is not urgently indicated; treat with IV steroids

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 24 to 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Current literature dictates that urgent decompression within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset maximizes the likelihood of neurological recovery, particularly for bladder, bowel, and sexual function.

Question 4064

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of medial elbow pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. The moving valgus stress test is positive. Which specific ligamentous structure is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 90 degrees of flexion?

. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament (Cooper's ligament)
. Radial collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Specifically, the anterior band of the anterior bundle is taut and primary from 0 to 90 degrees of flexion.

Question 4065

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old collegiate pitcher reports medial elbow pain and decreased throwing velocity. The "moving valgus stress test" is positive. What structure is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking phase of throwing?

. Anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Posterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion, which covers the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing.

Question 4066

Topic: 6. Spine

A 19-year-old rugby player is tackled and sustains a posterior sternoclavicular (SC) joint dislocation. He presents to the ER with mild dyspnea and dysphagia. What is the most critical imaging study required before attempting closed reduction in the operating room?

. Anteroposterior radiograph of the chest
. Serendipity view radiograph
. Non-contrast MRI of the cervical spine
. Computed tomography (CT) angiogram of the chest
. Ultrasound of the brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Computed tomography (CT) angiogram of the chest


Explanation

Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations can compress or injure critical mediastinal structures, including the trachea, esophagus, and great vessels. A CT scan, preferably with angiography, is essential to evaluate these structures before reduction.

Question 4067

Topic: 6. Spine

A 4-year-old child presents with bleeding gums, petechiae, and metaphyseal radiolucent bands on radiographs (Frankel's line). The underlying nutritional deficiency impairs collagen synthesis by directly affecting which enzymatic process?

. Cleavage of procollagen C-peptides
. Cross-linking of hydroxylysine residues by lysyl oxidase
. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues
. Glycosylation of alpha-chains
. Assembly of the triple helix

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues


Explanation

Scurvy is caused by Vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin C is a required cofactor for prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase, which hydroxylate proline and lysine residues essential for the stable triple helix structure of collagen.

Question 4068

Topic: Cervical Spine

Recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) is frequently used off-label in anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). This specific application is strongly associated with which of the following complications?

. Symptomatic pseudarthrosis
. Severe dysphagia and prevertebral soft tissue swelling
. Anterior cervical plate fracture
. Rapid ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament
. Vertebral artery pseudoaneurysm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Symptomatic pseudarthrosis


Explanation

The off-label use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine has been strongly linked to life-threatening prevertebral soft tissue swelling and severe dysphagia. Consequently, the FDA issued a direct warning regarding its use in this anatomical location.

Question 4069

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior thoracolumbar spine approach, the artery of Adamkiewicz is at risk. From which side and vertebral level does this artery most commonly arise?

. Right side, T5-T8
. Right side, T9-L2
. Left side, T5-T8
. Left side, T9-L2
. Left side, L3-L5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Right side, T5-T8


Explanation

The artery of Adamkiewicz provides the major blood supply to the anterior spinal artery of the lower spinal cord. It most commonly arises on the left side between T9 and L2.

Question 4070

Topic: 6. Spine

When inserting a pedicle screw in the lumbar spine, the traditional starting point is at the intersection of the pars interarticularis, the midpoint of the transverse process, and which other structure?

. Superior articular facet
. Inferior articular facet
. Spinous process
. Lamina
. Pedicle directly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior articular facet


Explanation

The traditional starting point for a lumbar pedicle screw is the intersection of a vertical line through the lateral border of the superior articular facet and a horizontal line bisecting the transverse process.

Question 4071

Topic: 6. Spine

During an anterior thoracolumbar spine approach, segmental arteries are ligated. Unintended ligation of the great radicular artery of Adamkiewicz typically leads to ischemia of which specific spinal cord region?

. Anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord
. Posterior one-third of the spinal cord
. Central cord gray matter only
. Dorsal columns
. Lateral spinothalamic tracts bilaterally only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord


Explanation

The artery of Adamkiewicz is the major blood supply to the anterior spinal artery in the lower thoracic and upper lumbar region. Its disruption compromises the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, potentially causing anterior cord syndrome.

Question 4072

Topic: 6. Spine

During the insertion of a right-sided pedicle screw at T12, the screw breaches the medial cortex of the pedicle. Which structure is most directly at risk from this errant trajectory?

. Spinal cord (conus medullaris)
. Lung pleura
. Aorta
. Azygos vein
. Sympathetic chain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal cord (conus medullaris)


Explanation

A medial pedicle breach endangers the neural elements within the spinal canal. At the T12 level, the conus medullaris and the lower spinal nerve roots are immediately medial to the pedicle.

Question 4073

Topic: 6. Spine

When performing an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), lateral dissection over the uncinate process is limited to avoid injuring the vertebral artery. The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

. C6
. C4
. C5
. C7
. C3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6


Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen of the C6 vertebra and ascends through the transverse foramina of the upper cervical vertebrae. Anomalous entry at C7 or C5 occurs in a small percentage of patients.

Question 4074

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient requires posterior instrumentation of the cervical spine. To avoid vertebral artery injury during lateral mass screw placement at C5, the surgeon must be aware of the artery's path. Through which transverse foramen does the vertebral artery typically first enter the cervical spine?

. C7
. C6
. C5
. C4
. C3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7


Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen of C6 in about 90% of cases and ascends through the transverse foramina of the upper cervical vertebrae. It rarely enters the C7 transverse foramen.

Question 4075

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with severe radicular leg pain, weakness in great toe extension, and numbness along the dorsum of the foot. An MRI reveals a posterolateral disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a posterolateral disc herniation typical impinges the traversing nerve root. Therefore, a herniation at L4-L5 compresses the L5 nerve root.

Question 4076

Topic: 6. Spine

During posterior spinal fusion, a surgeon evaluates the accuracy of lumbar pedicle screw tracts using a ball-tipped probe. If the medial cortical wall of the L4 pedicle is breached, which anatomic structure is immediately at risk?

. The exiting L3 nerve root
. The traversing L4 nerve root
. Thecal sac
. Sympathetic chain
. Epidural venous plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The exiting L3 nerve root


Explanation

The medial wall of the lumbar pedicle lies in direct contact with the thecal sac. The exiting nerve root passes directly inferior to the pedicle, and the traversing root lies medial to the pedicle within the canal.

Question 4077

Topic: 6. Spine

When placing pedicle screws in the lumbar spine, understanding the changing regional anatomy is critical for safe trajectory. Compared to the T12 pedicle, the typical L5 pedicle is:

. Narrower and directed more sagittally
. Wider and directed more medially
. Narrower and directed more medially
. Wider and directed more sagittally
. Equal in width but directed more sagittally

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Narrower and directed more sagittally


Explanation

As you move caudally from the thoracolumbar junction to the lower lumbar spine, the pedicles generally become wider in diameter and have an increased medial (convergent) transverse angle.

Question 4078

Topic: 6. Spine

When performing a standard posterior approach to the lumbar spine, the surgeon exposes the pars interarticularis. Which neural structure lies immediately anterior to the pars interarticularis?

. Traversing nerve root
. Exiting nerve root
. Cauda equina
. Sympathetic chain
. Sinuvertebral nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Traversing nerve root


Explanation

The exiting nerve root lies immediately anterior to the pars interarticularis within the neural foramen. It is highly vulnerable during overly aggressive bone removal at the pars.

Question 4079

Topic: 6. Spine

During anterior cervical spine surgery, aggressive dissection lateral to the uncovertebral joints puts the vertebral artery at risk. At which cervical level does the vertebral artery typically first enter the foramen transversarium?

. C7
. C6
. C5
. C4
. C3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C7


Explanation

The vertebral artery typically enters the transverse foramen at the C6 level. It is vulnerable during dissection lateral to the uncovertebral joints at C6 and superiorly.

Question 4080

Topic: 6. Spine

During anterior cervical spine surgery, recognizing the course of the vertebral artery is vital. In the majority of individuals, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

. C3
. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C3


Explanation

In over 90% of the population, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen of the cervical spine at the C6 level. Anatomical variants exist where it may enter at C7 or higher levels like C5.