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Question 3681

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old man presents with myelopathy. CT scan shows continuous ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C5. If an anterior cervical corpectomy is planned, the patient is at highest risk for which of the following intraoperative complications?

. Vertebral artery laceration
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve transection
. Esophageal perforation
. Dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid leak
. Horner's syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid leak


Explanation

OPLL frequently involves ossification that merges with or penetrates the underlying dura. Surgical resection via an anterior approach carries a high risk of dural tearing and CSF leak.

Question 3682

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old woman returns to the clinic 4 years after undergoing a successful L4-L5 posterior lumbar interbody fusion. She now complains of new-onset neurogenic claudication. MRI demonstrates severe central canal stenosis at a new level. Which level is most commonly affected by symptomatic adjacent segment disease in this scenario?

. L1-L2
. L2-L3
. L3-L4
. L5-S1
. Sacroiliac joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3-L4


Explanation

Symptomatic adjacent segment disease following a lumbar fusion most commonly occurs at the level immediately cephalad to the fusion. For an L4-L5 fusion, this is the L3-L4 level.

Question 3683

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old man presents with neck pain after a ground-level fall. CT scan reveals a displaced Type II odontoid fracture. He is neurologically intact. Given his age, what is the most appropriate management to minimize mortality and morbidity?

. Halo vest immobilization for 12 weeks
. Hard cervical collar for 6 weeks
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion


Explanation

Type II odontoid fractures in the elderly have a high rate of nonunion, and halo vest immobilization is associated with high mortality. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion provides definitive stabilization with better outcomes.

Question 3684

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 45-year-old woman undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion at C6-C7. Postoperatively, she is noted to have unilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the surgical side. Which structure was most likely injured during the surgical exposure?

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Sympathetic chain
. Phrenic nerve
. Vagus nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sympathetic chain


Explanation

Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) results from injury to the cervical sympathetic chain. This structure is at risk during ACDF when dissection extends too far laterally over the longus colli muscles.

Question 3685

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man with a history of cervical stenosis falls forward and strikes his chin, forcefully hyperextending his neck. He presents with severe motor weakness in his hands and arms, but is able to walk with only mild difficulty. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome classically occurs in older patients with pre-existing cervical stenosis who sustain a hyperextension injury. It presents with disproportionately greater motor impairment in the upper extremities.

Question 3686

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 30-year-old man sustains an axial loading injury, resulting in a Jefferson burst fracture of C1. Which radiographic measurement on the open-mouth odontoid view best indicates a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament?

. Atlantodental interval > 3 mm
. Sum of lateral mass displacement of C1 on C2 > 6.9 mm
. Basion-dental interval > 12 mm
. Power's ratio > 1.0
. Prevertebral soft tissue swelling > 10 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sum of lateral mass displacement of C1 on C2 > 6.9 mm


Explanation

In a Jefferson fracture, an aggregate displacement of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than 6.9 mm indicates a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament, rendering the injury highly unstable.

Question 3687

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old man presents with right-sided neck pain radiating down his arm. Physical examination reveals weakness in wrist extension, a diminished brachioradialis reflex, and decreased sensation over his thumb and index finger. A herniated disc at which cervical level is most likely responsible?

. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1
. C3-C4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C6


Explanation

The clinical presentation describes a C6 radiculopathy. This is most commonly caused by a disc herniation at the C5-C6 level compressing the exiting C6 nerve root.

Question 3688

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 65-year-old woman presents with neurogenic claudication. Imaging reveals a Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis. What is the most common anatomic level for this specific pathology to occur?

. L2-L3
. L3-L4
. L4-L5
. L5-S1
. T12-L1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5


Explanation

Degenerative spondylolisthesis occurs most frequently at the L4-L5 level. This is in contrast to isthmic spondylolisthesis, which most commonly affects the L5-S1 level.

Question 3689

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male sustains a T12 burst fracture after a fall from a height of 10 feet. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates an indeterminate posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) injury. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) scale, what is the most appropriate management recommendation?

. Immediate surgical decompression and stabilization
. Strict bed rest for 6 weeks followed by bracing
. Nonoperative management with a TLSO exclusively
. Management may be either surgical or nonoperative based on surgeon discretion
. Kyphoplasty of the T12 vertebral body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Management may be either surgical or nonoperative based on surgeon discretion


Explanation

This patient has a TLICS score of 4 (Morphology: Burst = 2; Neuro: Intact = 0; PLC: Indeterminate = 2). A score of 4 signifies that either operative or nonoperative management is acceptable based on surgeon preference.

Question 3690

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for cervical spondylotic myelopathy localizing to the C5 or C6 level?

. Hoffmann sign
. Babinski reflex
. Inverted radial reflex
. Lhermitte's sign
. Sustained ankle clonus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inverted radial reflex


Explanation

The inverted radial reflex is highly specific for a lesion at the C5-C6 level. It is elicited by tapping the brachioradialis tendon, resulting in paradoxical spontaneous flexion of the digits.

Question 3691

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with adult spinal deformity and severe sagittal imbalance. His pelvic incidence (PI) is calculated at 55 degrees. To achieve an optimal sagittal profile and minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease following a long-segment fusion, the patient's postoperative lumbar lordosis (LL) should be targeted to which of the following ranges?

. 10 to 20 degrees
. 25 to 35 degrees
. 45 to 65 degrees
. 75 to 85 degrees
. 90 to 100 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 20 degrees


Explanation

A key goal in adult spinal deformity correction is matching the lumbar lordosis to the pelvic incidence. Postoperative LL should ideally be within 10 degrees of the PI (PI = LL +/- 10 degrees).

Question 3692

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He is awake, alert, and follows commands. Neurological examination reveals intact motor and sensory function. Radiographs demonstrate a bilateral C5-C6 facet dislocation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate MRI of the cervical spine before any reduction attempts
. Awake closed reduction with skeletal traction
. Urgent posterior cervical fusion without reduction
. Application of a hard cervical collar and observation
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion without preoperative traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Awake closed reduction with skeletal traction


Explanation

In an awake, cooperative, and neurologically intact patient, urgent closed reduction via skeletal traction is safe and indicated. MRI prior to reduction is generally reserved for patients who are comatose or unexaminable to rule out a compressive disc herniation.

Question 3693

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old female presents with severe right anterior thigh pain and quadriceps weakness. Physical examination reveals an absent right patellar reflex. MRI demonstrates a large, far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. Therefore, an L4-L5 far-lateral herniation compresses the L4 nerve root.

Question 3694

Topic: 6. Spine

In a patient presenting with symptomatic L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis and lumbar stenosis, which of the following MRI findings is most predictive of dynamic instability and the potential failure of decompression alone without fusion?

. Ligamentum flavum hypertrophy greater than 3 mm
. Modic Type II endplate changes
. Bilateral facet joint effusions greater than 1.5 mm
. Multifidus muscle fatty infiltration
. Central canal cross-sectional area less than 75 mm squared

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bilateral facet joint effusions greater than 1.5 mm


Explanation

Facet joint effusions >1.5 mm on T2-weighted MRI strongly correlate with dynamic instability on flexion-extension radiographs. These patients are at higher risk of progressive slip if treated with decompression alone.

Question 3695

Topic: 6. Spine

An 80-year-old male sustains a hyperextension injury to his cervical spine resulting in central cord syndrome. What is the typical sequence of neurological recovery in this condition?

. Hand function, proximal upper extremity, lower extremity, bowel/bladder
. Bowel/bladder, hand function, lower extremity, proximal upper extremity
. Lower extremity, bowel/bladder, proximal upper extremity, distal upper extremity
. Proximal upper extremity, distal upper extremity, bowel/bladder, lower extremity
. Distal upper extremity, lower extremity, proximal upper extremity, bowel/bladder

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower extremity, bowel/bladder, proximal upper extremity, distal upper extremity


Explanation

Recovery in central cord syndrome typically occurs in a predictable sequence: lower extremities first, followed by bowel/bladder function, then proximal upper extremities. Distal upper extremity (hand intrinsic) function returns last and often has the poorest recovery.

Question 3696

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents with severe neck pain following a minor low-speed motor vehicle collision. Standard anteroposterior and lateral cervical radiographs demonstrate no obvious fracture or dislocation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a soft cervical collar and NSAIDs
. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the cervical spine
. Bone scan of the cervical spine
. Cervical epidural steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the cervical spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at high risk for highly unstable occult fractures even after minor trauma. Plain radiographs are inadequate due to altered anatomy; a CT scan is mandatory if a fracture is suspected.

Question 3697

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following clinical findings is the most sensitive indicator for diagnosing cauda equina syndrome?

. Bilateral lower extremity motor weakness
. Saddle anesthesia
. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
. Urinary retention
. Fecal incontinence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urinary retention


Explanation

Urinary retention is the most sensitive clinical sign (approximately 90%) for cauda equina syndrome. A normal post-void residual (PVR < 100 mL) makes the diagnosis highly unlikely.

Question 3698

Topic: 6. Spine

During a posterior spinal fusion for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis, transcranial motor evoked potentials (MEPs) drop by 85% bilaterally in the lower extremities following curve correction. Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) remain unchanged. Mean arterial pressure is 85 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial step?

. Perform a wake-up test immediately
. Administer high-dose intravenous corticosteroids
. Increase depth of anesthesia
. Release the deformity correction and remove the rods
. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Release the deformity correction and remove the rods


Explanation

Isolated loss of MEPs suggests anterior cord ischemia or motor pathway compromise. The immediate first step is to halt the procedure and release the corrective forces/rods to restore perfusion to the spinal cord.

Question 3699

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old male presents with hyperkyphosis of the thoracic spine. According to the Sorensen criteria, radiographic diagnosis of Scheuermann's disease requires anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in how many consecutive vertebrae?

. One vertebra
. Two consecutive vertebrae
. Three consecutive vertebrae
. Four consecutive vertebrae
. Five consecutive vertebrae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Three consecutive vertebrae


Explanation

The Sorensen criteria define classic Scheuermann's kyphosis as thoracic hyperkyphosis (>40 degrees) with anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in three or more consecutive vertebrae.

Question 3700

Topic: 6. Spine

A 52-year-old male presents with radiating arm pain, numbness in the middle finger, and weakness in triceps extension and wrist flexion. Which cervical disc level is most likely herniated?

. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1
. T1-T2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6-C7


Explanation

These findings are classic for a C7 radiculopathy. In the cervical spine, the exiting nerve root corresponds to the lower vertebral segment, so a C6-C7 disc herniation affects the C7 nerve root.