This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3681
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old man presents with myelopathy. CT scan shows continuous ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C5. If an anterior cervical corpectomy is planned, the patient is at highest risk for which of the following intraoperative complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid leak
Explanation
OPLL frequently involves ossification that merges with or penetrates the underlying dura. Surgical resection via an anterior approach carries a high risk of dural tearing and CSF leak.
Question 3682
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old woman returns to the clinic 4 years after undergoing a successful L4-L5 posterior lumbar interbody fusion. She now complains of new-onset neurogenic claudication. MRI demonstrates severe central canal stenosis at a new level. Which level is most commonly affected by symptomatic adjacent segment disease in this scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L3-L4
Explanation
Symptomatic adjacent segment disease following a lumbar fusion most commonly occurs at the level immediately cephalad to the fusion. For an L4-L5 fusion, this is the L3-L4 level.
Question 3683
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 82-year-old man presents with neck pain after a ground-level fall. CT scan reveals a displaced Type II odontoid fracture. He is neurologically intact. Given his age, what is the most appropriate management to minimize mortality and morbidity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
Explanation
Type II odontoid fractures in the elderly have a high rate of nonunion, and halo vest immobilization is associated with high mortality. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion provides definitive stabilization with better outcomes.
Question 3684
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 45-year-old woman undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion at C6-C7. Postoperatively, she is noted to have unilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the surgical side. Which structure was most likely injured during the surgical exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sympathetic chain
Explanation
Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) results from injury to the cervical sympathetic chain. This structure is at risk during ACDF when dissection extends too far laterally over the longus colli muscles.
Question 3685
Topic: 6. Spine
A 72-year-old man with a history of cervical stenosis falls forward and strikes his chin, forcefully hyperextending his neck. He presents with severe motor weakness in his hands and arms, but is able to walk with only mild difficulty. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome classically occurs in older patients with pre-existing cervical stenosis who sustain a hyperextension injury. It presents with disproportionately greater motor impairment in the upper extremities.
Question 3686
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 30-year-old man sustains an axial loading injury, resulting in a Jefferson burst fracture of C1. Which radiographic measurement on the open-mouth odontoid view best indicates a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sum of lateral mass displacement of C1 on C2 > 6.9 mm
Explanation
In a Jefferson fracture, an aggregate displacement of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than 6.9 mm indicates a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament, rendering the injury highly unstable.
Question 3687
Topic: 6. Spine
A 50-year-old man presents with right-sided neck pain radiating down his arm. Physical examination reveals weakness in wrist extension, a diminished brachioradialis reflex, and decreased sensation over his thumb and index finger. A herniated disc at which cervical level is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5-C6
Explanation
The clinical presentation describes a C6 radiculopathy. This is most commonly caused by a disc herniation at the C5-C6 level compressing the exiting C6 nerve root.
Question 3688
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 65-year-old woman presents with neurogenic claudication. Imaging reveals a Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis. What is the most common anatomic level for this specific pathology to occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4-L5
Explanation
Degenerative spondylolisthesis occurs most frequently at the L4-L5 level. This is in contrast to isthmic spondylolisthesis, which most commonly affects the L5-S1 level.
Question 3689
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 35-year-old male sustains a T12 burst fracture after a fall from a height of 10 feet. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates an indeterminate posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) injury. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) scale, what is the most appropriate management recommendation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Management may be either surgical or nonoperative based on surgeon discretion
Explanation
This patient has a TLICS score of 4 (Morphology: Burst = 2; Neuro: Intact = 0; PLC: Indeterminate = 2). A score of 4 signifies that either operative or nonoperative management is acceptable based on surgeon preference.
Question 3690
Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for cervical spondylotic myelopathy localizing to the C5 or C6 level?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inverted radial reflex
Explanation
The inverted radial reflex is highly specific for a lesion at the C5-C6 level. It is elicited by tapping the brachioradialis tendon, resulting in paradoxical spontaneous flexion of the digits.
Question 3691
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male presents with adult spinal deformity and severe sagittal imbalance. His pelvic incidence (PI) is calculated at 55 degrees. To achieve an optimal sagittal profile and minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease following a long-segment fusion, the patient's postoperative lumbar lordosis (LL) should be targeted to which of the following ranges?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 to 20 degrees
Explanation
A key goal in adult spinal deformity correction is matching the lumbar lordosis to the pelvic incidence. Postoperative LL should ideally be within 10 degrees of the PI (PI = LL +/- 10 degrees).
Question 3692
Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He is awake, alert, and follows commands. Neurological examination reveals intact motor and sensory function. Radiographs demonstrate a bilateral C5-C6 facet dislocation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Awake closed reduction with skeletal traction
Explanation
In an awake, cooperative, and neurologically intact patient, urgent closed reduction via skeletal traction is safe and indicated. MRI prior to reduction is generally reserved for patients who are comatose or unexaminable to rule out a compressive disc herniation.
Question 3693
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old female presents with severe right anterior thigh pain and quadriceps weakness. Physical examination reveals an absent right patellar reflex. MRI demonstrates a large, far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. Therefore, an L4-L5 far-lateral herniation compresses the L4 nerve root.
Question 3694
Topic: 6. Spine
In a patient presenting with symptomatic L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis and lumbar stenosis, which of the following MRI findings is most predictive of dynamic instability and the potential failure of decompression alone without fusion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bilateral facet joint effusions greater than 1.5 mm
Explanation
Facet joint effusions >1.5 mm on T2-weighted MRI strongly correlate with dynamic instability on flexion-extension radiographs. These patients are at higher risk of progressive slip if treated with decompression alone.
Question 3695
Topic: 6. Spine
An 80-year-old male sustains a hyperextension injury to his cervical spine resulting in central cord syndrome. What is the typical sequence of neurological recovery in this condition?
Recovery in central cord syndrome typically occurs in a predictable sequence: lower extremities first, followed by bowel/bladder function, then proximal upper extremities. Distal upper extremity (hand intrinsic) function returns last and often has the poorest recovery.
Question 3696
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents with severe neck pain following a minor low-speed motor vehicle collision. Standard anteroposterior and lateral cervical radiographs demonstrate no obvious fracture or dislocation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the cervical spine
Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at high risk for highly unstable occult fractures even after minor trauma. Plain radiographs are inadequate due to altered anatomy; a CT scan is mandatory if a fracture is suspected.
Question 3697
Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following clinical findings is the most sensitive indicator for diagnosing cauda equina syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Urinary retention
Explanation
Urinary retention is the most sensitive clinical sign (approximately 90%) for cauda equina syndrome. A normal post-void residual (PVR < 100 mL) makes the diagnosis highly unlikely.
Question 3698
Topic: 6. Spine
During a posterior spinal fusion for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis, transcranial motor evoked potentials (MEPs) drop by 85% bilaterally in the lower extremities following curve correction. Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) remain unchanged. Mean arterial pressure is 85 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Release the deformity correction and remove the rods
Explanation
Isolated loss of MEPs suggests anterior cord ischemia or motor pathway compromise. The immediate first step is to halt the procedure and release the corrective forces/rods to restore perfusion to the spinal cord.
Question 3699
Topic: 6. Spine
A 15-year-old male presents with hyperkyphosis of the thoracic spine. According to the Sorensen criteria, radiographic diagnosis of Scheuermann's disease requires anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in how many consecutive vertebrae?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Three consecutive vertebrae
Explanation
The Sorensen criteria define classic Scheuermann's kyphosis as thoracic hyperkyphosis (>40 degrees) with anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in three or more consecutive vertebrae.
Question 3700
Topic: 6. Spine
A 52-year-old male presents with radiating arm pain, numbness in the middle finger, and weakness in triceps extension and wrist flexion. Which cervical disc level is most likely herniated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6-C7
Explanation
These findings are classic for a C7 radiculopathy. In the cervical spine, the exiting nerve root corresponds to the lower vertebral segment, so a C6-C7 disc herniation affects the C7 nerve root.
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