This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3661
Topic: 6. Spine
A 42-year-old man presents with acute onset urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, and bilateral sciatica. MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 disc herniation compressing the cauda equina. To maximize the chance of complete recovery of bowel and bladder function, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what maximum timeframe from symptom onset?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 48 hours
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Evidence indicates that surgical decompression performed within 48 hours of symptom onset yields the best outcomes for recovery of motor and sphincter function.
Question 3662
Topic: 6. Spine
A 28-year-old woman was rear-ended in a motor vehicle collision. She has posterior neck pain without neurologic deficits. CT of the cervical spine is normal, and dynamic flexion-extension views show no instability. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early active range of motion and physical therapy
Explanation
For a cervical sprain (whiplash) without structural instability or neurologic deficits, the best evidence supports early mobilization, active range of motion, and physical therapy to optimize recovery and prevent chronic pain.
Question 3663
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old man presents with severe right-sided back and leg pain extending to the lateral aspect of his right foot. Examination reveals profound weakness in right plantar flexion and an absent right Achilles reflex. Which disc herniation pattern is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5-S1 paracentral disc herniation
Explanation
An L5-S1 paracentral disc herniation compresses the traversing S1 nerve root. S1 radiculopathy classically presents with pain radiating to the lateral foot, weakness in ankle plantar flexion, and an absent Achilles reflex.
Question 3664
Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following physical examination findings is highly specific for spinal cord compression localizing to the C5-C6 level rather than a higher cervical level?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inverted brachioradialis reflex
Explanation
The inverted brachioradialis reflex indicates a lower motor neuron lesion at C5-C6 (absent brachioradialis response) combined with an upper motor neuron lesion below this level (hyperactive finger flexion). It is highly specific for C5-C6 myelopathy.
Question 3665
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old man presents with severe right leg pain. Examination reveals weakness in knee extension and an absent patellar reflex. Sensation is decreased over the medial aspect of the lower leg. An MRI demonstrates a far-lateral disc herniation at L4-L5. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. At L4-L5, the L4 nerve root exits the foramen and is affected, causing quadriceps weakness, an absent patellar reflex, and medial leg numbness.
Question 3666
Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old man arrives at the trauma bay after a diving accident. He is awake, alert, and cooperative, but exhibits 0/5 motor strength in his lower extremities, bilateral hand weakness, and absent sensation below the clavicles. Lateral cervical spine radiographs demonstrate an anterolisthesis of C5 on C6 of approximately 50%. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Awake closed skeletal traction
Explanation
In an awake, alert, and cooperative patient with a cervical dislocation and a neurologic deficit, urgent closed reduction via skeletal traction is indicated without obtaining an MRI first. An MRI is required before reduction only if the patient is obtunded or cannot participate in a reliable clinical exam.
Question 3667
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 22-year-old woman is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing a lap belt. She complains of severe back pain. Radiographs reveal a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. Which of the following associated injuries must be carefully evaluated for in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hollow viscus bowel injury
Explanation
Chance fractures are flexion-distraction injuries commonly caused by lap seatbelts acting as a fulcrum. They have a high association (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly to hollow viscus organs such as the small bowel.
Question 3668
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. Postoperatively, he develops profound weakness of the bilateral deltoid and biceps muscles (1/5 strength) but maintains full strength in his hands and lower extremities. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Traction on the C5 nerve roots due to spinal cord drift
Explanation
C5 nerve root palsy is a known complication of posterior cervical decompression, due to the posterior drift of the spinal cord putting traction on the short, tethered C5 roots. Most cases resolve spontaneously within 6 to 12 months.
Question 3669
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 75-year-old woman falls from a standing height and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 3 mm of posterior displacement. She is neurologically intact. Given her age, which of the following treatment options is associated with the highest risk of mortality and severe morbidity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Halo vest immobilization
Explanation
In elderly patients (especially those >65 years), halo vest immobilization for odontoid fractures is poorly tolerated and associated with high rates of severe complications, including pneumonia, respiratory failure, and increased mortality.
Question 3670
Topic: Cervical Spine
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7 using a right-sided approach, the patient subsequently develops postoperative hoarseness. Which anatomical characteristic of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) makes it more susceptible to injury on the right side compared to the left?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The right RLN courses inferior to the right subclavian artery and ascends obliquely
Explanation
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and ascends obliquely into the neck, making its course variable and more susceptible to injury during a right-sided approach. The left RLN loops under the aortic arch and runs safely in the tracheoesophageal groove.
Question 3671
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old diabetic man presents with severe mid-back pain, low-grade fevers, and progressive bilateral leg weakness over the past 48 hours. He has a history of recent intravenous drug use. MRI reveals a large dorsal epidural mass at T8 with cord compression, hyperintense on T2 and showing peripheral enhancement. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical decompression and debridement
Explanation
The patient presents with a spinal epidural abscess causing a progressive neurologic deficit. Emergent surgical decompression and debridement, along with culture-directed antibiotics, are indicated to prevent irreversible spinal cord injury.
Question 3672
Topic: 6. Spine
A 30-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). Radiographs reveal severe angulation of C2 on C3 with minimal anterior translation. The disc space is widened posteriorly. Which of the following treatments is strictly contraindicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cervical traction
Explanation
This describes a Levine and Edwards Type IIa Hangman's fracture, resulting from a flexion-distraction mechanism. Cervical traction is strictly contraindicated as it will further distract the fracture and exacerbate the instability.
Question 3673
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old man presents with bilateral leg cramping and pain that worsens with walking. Which of the following historical features most strongly suggests neurogenic claudication rather than vascular claudication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain is relieved by walking uphill rather than downhill
Explanation
Neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis) is exacerbated by spinal extension and relieved by flexion. Walking uphill flexes the spine and increases the canal area, relieving symptoms, whereas walking downhill extends the spine and worsens symptoms.
Question 3674
Topic: 6. Spine
A 10-year-old boy is struck by a car and presents intubated in the emergency department. Lateral cervical spine radiographs show a Basion-Dental Interval (BDI) of 14 mm. What is the definitive treatment for this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Occipitocervical fusion
Explanation
A Basion-Dental Interval (BDI) greater than 12 mm indicates atlanto-occipital dissociation (AOD), a highly unstable ligamentous injury. The definitive treatment for AOD is occipitocervical fusion, as ligamentous healing is predictably poor.
Question 3675
Topic: 6. Spine
A 40-year-old patient falls from a height and sustains an L1 burst fracture. Which of the following radiographic findings most strongly indicates a complete disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC), warranting operative stabilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Widening of the interspinous distance on AP radiographs
Explanation
Widening of the interspinous distance (splaying of the spinous processes) on AP radiographs or sagittal MRI indicates disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). PLC disruption in a burst fracture renders the spine mechanically unstable and is a strong indication for surgery.
Question 3676
Topic: 6. Spine
A 38-year-old woman presents with severe low back pain radiating down the posterior aspect of her left calf to the plantar surface of her foot. She has weakness in ankle plantarflexion and an absent Achilles reflex. An MRI demonstrates a typical paracentral disc herniation at the L5-S1 level. Which nerve root is being compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Traversing S1
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a typical paracentral disc herniation at L5-S1 compresses the traversing S1 nerve root. This results in S1 radiculopathy, characterized by posterior leg pain, weakness in ankle plantarflexion, and a diminished or absent Achilles reflex.
Question 3677
Topic: 6. Spine
A 62-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 laminectomy and instrumented fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops isolated profound weakness in shoulder abduction and elbow flexion bilaterally. What is the most widely accepted pathophysiologic mechanism for this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior shift of the spinal cord resulting in tethering of the nerve roots
Explanation
C5 palsy after posterior cervical decompression is most commonly attributed to the posterior drift of the spinal cord, which tethers the relatively short C5 nerve roots. It presents as deltoid and biceps weakness.
Question 3678
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old man presents with severe right leg pain, numbness over the medial aspect of his calf, and weakness in knee extension. An MRI of the lumbar spine reveals a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4
Explanation
A far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, an L4-L5 far lateral disc compresses the L4 nerve root.
Question 3679
Topic: 6. Spine
A 58-year-old woman presents with progressive gait instability and hand clumsiness. Examination reveals positive Hoffman's signs bilaterally. MRI demonstrates multi-level cervical spondylotic myelopathy from C3-C6 with a fixed, rigid 15-degree cervical kyphosis. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) or corpectomy
Explanation
In cervical spondylotic myelopathy with a rigid, kyphotic deformity, an anterior approach is required to decompress the cord and correct sagittal alignment. Posterior decompression alone is contraindicated in rigid kyphosis as the cord remains draped over the anterior pathology.
Question 3680
Topic: 6. Spine
A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe acute low back pain and bilateral sciatica following heavy lifting. Which of the following is typically the earliest clinical sign or symptom of cauda equina syndrome in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Urinary retention
Explanation
Urinary retention is generally the most consistent and earliest sign of cauda equina syndrome. A post-void residual should be checked immediately if this is suspected.
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