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Question 3661

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old man presents with acute onset urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, and bilateral sciatica. MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 disc herniation compressing the cauda equina. To maximize the chance of complete recovery of bowel and bladder function, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what maximum timeframe from symptom onset?

. 6 hours
. 12 hours
. 48 hours
. 72 hours
. 5 days

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Evidence indicates that surgical decompression performed within 48 hours of symptom onset yields the best outcomes for recovery of motor and sphincter function.

Question 3662

Topic: 6. Spine

A 28-year-old woman was rear-ended in a motor vehicle collision. She has posterior neck pain without neurologic deficits. CT of the cervical spine is normal, and dynamic flexion-extension views show no instability. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. MRI of the cervical spine
. Early active range of motion and physical therapy
. Immobilization in a hard cervical collar for 4 weeks
. Trigger point botulinum toxin injections
. Epidural steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early active range of motion and physical therapy


Explanation

For a cervical sprain (whiplash) without structural instability or neurologic deficits, the best evidence supports early mobilization, active range of motion, and physical therapy to optimize recovery and prevent chronic pain.

Question 3663

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old man presents with severe right-sided back and leg pain extending to the lateral aspect of his right foot. Examination reveals profound weakness in right plantar flexion and an absent right Achilles reflex. Which disc herniation pattern is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

. L3-L4 paracentral disc herniation
. L4-L5 paracentral disc herniation
. L4-L5 far lateral disc herniation
. L5-S1 paracentral disc herniation
. L5-S1 far lateral disc herniation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5-S1 paracentral disc herniation


Explanation

An L5-S1 paracentral disc herniation compresses the traversing S1 nerve root. S1 radiculopathy classically presents with pain radiating to the lateral foot, weakness in ankle plantar flexion, and an absent Achilles reflex.

Question 3664

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following physical examination findings is highly specific for spinal cord compression localizing to the C5-C6 level rather than a higher cervical level?

. Positive Babinski reflex
. Positive Hoffman sign
. Hyperreflexia of the biceps
. Inverted brachioradialis reflex
. Sustained ankle clonus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inverted brachioradialis reflex


Explanation

The inverted brachioradialis reflex indicates a lower motor neuron lesion at C5-C6 (absent brachioradialis response) combined with an upper motor neuron lesion below this level (hyperactive finger flexion). It is highly specific for C5-C6 myelopathy.

Question 3665

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with severe right leg pain. Examination reveals weakness in knee extension and an absent patellar reflex. Sensation is decreased over the medial aspect of the lower leg. An MRI demonstrates a far-lateral disc herniation at L4-L5. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at that level. At L4-L5, the L4 nerve root exits the foramen and is affected, causing quadriceps weakness, an absent patellar reflex, and medial leg numbness.

Question 3666

Topic: 6. Spine

A 25-year-old man arrives at the trauma bay after a diving accident. He is awake, alert, and cooperative, but exhibits 0/5 motor strength in his lower extremities, bilateral hand weakness, and absent sensation below the clavicles. Lateral cervical spine radiographs demonstrate an anterolisthesis of C5 on C6 of approximately 50%. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate MRI of the cervical spine
. Awake closed skeletal traction
. Cervical collar and delayed posterior spinal fusion
. Urgent anterior cervical discectomy and fusion
. Administration of high-dose methylprednisolone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Awake closed skeletal traction


Explanation

In an awake, alert, and cooperative patient with a cervical dislocation and a neurologic deficit, urgent closed reduction via skeletal traction is indicated without obtaining an MRI first. An MRI is required before reduction only if the patient is obtunded or cannot participate in a reliable clinical exam.

Question 3667

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 22-year-old woman is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing a lap belt. She complains of severe back pain. Radiographs reveal a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. Which of the following associated injuries must be carefully evaluated for in this patient?

. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Hollow viscus bowel injury
. Aortic transection
. Renal artery thrombosis
. Splenic laceration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hollow viscus bowel injury


Explanation

Chance fractures are flexion-distraction injuries commonly caused by lap seatbelts acting as a fulcrum. They have a high association (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly to hollow viscus organs such as the small bowel.

Question 3668

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. Postoperatively, he develops profound weakness of the bilateral deltoid and biceps muscles (1/5 strength) but maintains full strength in his hands and lower extremities. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Iatrogenic spinal cord injury
. Epidural hematoma
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Traction on the C5 nerve roots due to spinal cord drift
. Vertebral artery injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Traction on the C5 nerve roots due to spinal cord drift


Explanation

C5 nerve root palsy is a known complication of posterior cervical decompression, due to the posterior drift of the spinal cord putting traction on the short, tethered C5 roots. Most cases resolve spontaneously within 6 to 12 months.

Question 3669

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 75-year-old woman falls from a standing height and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 3 mm of posterior displacement. She is neurologically intact. Given her age, which of the following treatment options is associated with the highest risk of mortality and severe morbidity?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumentation and fusion
. Minerva cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients (especially those >65 years), halo vest immobilization for odontoid fractures is poorly tolerated and associated with high rates of severe complications, including pneumonia, respiratory failure, and increased mortality.

Question 3670

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7 using a right-sided approach, the patient subsequently develops postoperative hoarseness. Which anatomical characteristic of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) makes it more susceptible to injury on the right side compared to the left?

. The right RLN passes anterior to the carotid sheath
. The right RLN courses inferior to the right subclavian artery and ascends obliquely
. The right RLN loops under the aortic arch
. The right RLN runs consistently within the tracheoesophageal groove
. The right RLN innervates the cricothyroid muscle directly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The right RLN courses inferior to the right subclavian artery and ascends obliquely


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and ascends obliquely into the neck, making its course variable and more susceptible to injury during a right-sided approach. The left RLN loops under the aortic arch and runs safely in the tracheoesophageal groove.

Question 3671

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old diabetic man presents with severe mid-back pain, low-grade fevers, and progressive bilateral leg weakness over the past 48 hours. He has a history of recent intravenous drug use. MRI reveals a large dorsal epidural mass at T8 with cord compression, hyperintense on T2 and showing peripheral enhancement. What is the most appropriate management?

. Intravenous antibiotics alone for 6 weeks
. CT-guided needle aspiration
. Immediate surgical decompression and debridement
. High-dose corticosteroids
. Radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical decompression and debridement


Explanation

The patient presents with a spinal epidural abscess causing a progressive neurologic deficit. Emergent surgical decompression and debridement, along with culture-directed antibiotics, are indicated to prevent irreversible spinal cord injury.

Question 3672

Topic: 6. Spine

A 30-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). Radiographs reveal severe angulation of C2 on C3 with minimal anterior translation. The disc space is widened posteriorly. Which of the following treatments is strictly contraindicated?

. Halo vest placement with slight extension
. Posterior C1-C3 fusion
. Anterior C2-C3 discectomy and fusion
. Cervical traction
. Rigid cervical orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical traction


Explanation

This describes a Levine and Edwards Type IIa Hangman's fracture, resulting from a flexion-distraction mechanism. Cervical traction is strictly contraindicated as it will further distract the fracture and exacerbate the instability.

Question 3673

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old man presents with bilateral leg cramping and pain that worsens with walking. Which of the following historical features most strongly suggests neurogenic claudication rather than vascular claudication?

. Pain is relieved immediately upon standing still
. Pain is relieved by walking uphill rather than downhill
. Pain is strictly unilateral
. Absent distal pulses
. Atrophic skin changes on the lower extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain is relieved by walking uphill rather than downhill


Explanation

Neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis) is exacerbated by spinal extension and relieved by flexion. Walking uphill flexes the spine and increases the canal area, relieving symptoms, whereas walking downhill extends the spine and worsens symptoms.

Question 3674

Topic: 6. Spine

A 10-year-old boy is struck by a car and presents intubated in the emergency department. Lateral cervical spine radiographs show a Basion-Dental Interval (BDI) of 14 mm. What is the definitive treatment for this injury?

. Skeletal traction for 6 weeks
. Halo vest immobilization for 12 weeks
. Occipitocervical fusion
. C1-C2 posterior fusion
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Occipitocervical fusion


Explanation

A Basion-Dental Interval (BDI) greater than 12 mm indicates atlanto-occipital dissociation (AOD), a highly unstable ligamentous injury. The definitive treatment for AOD is occipitocervical fusion, as ligamentous healing is predictably poor.

Question 3675

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old patient falls from a height and sustains an L1 burst fracture. Which of the following radiographic findings most strongly indicates a complete disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC), warranting operative stabilization?

. Loss of anterior vertebral body height of 20%
. Retropulsion of bone into the spinal canal by 10%
. Widening of the interspinous distance on AP radiographs
. Anterior wedge angulation of 10 degrees
. Presence of a sagittal split fracture of the vertebral body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Widening of the interspinous distance on AP radiographs


Explanation

Widening of the interspinous distance (splaying of the spinous processes) on AP radiographs or sagittal MRI indicates disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). PLC disruption in a burst fracture renders the spine mechanically unstable and is a strong indication for surgery.

Question 3676

Topic: 6. Spine

A 38-year-old woman presents with severe low back pain radiating down the posterior aspect of her left calf to the plantar surface of her foot. She has weakness in ankle plantarflexion and an absent Achilles reflex. An MRI demonstrates a typical paracentral disc herniation at the L5-S1 level. Which nerve root is being compressed?

. Exiting L4
. Traversing L4
. Exiting L5
. Traversing S1
. Traversing S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Traversing S1


Explanation

In the lumbar spine, a typical paracentral disc herniation at L5-S1 compresses the traversing S1 nerve root. This results in S1 radiculopathy, characterized by posterior leg pain, weakness in ankle plantarflexion, and a diminished or absent Achilles reflex.

Question 3677

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 laminectomy and instrumented fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops isolated profound weakness in shoulder abduction and elbow flexion bilaterally. What is the most widely accepted pathophysiologic mechanism for this complication?

. Direct intraoperative injury to the spinal accessory nerve
. Iatrogenic injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Posterior shift of the spinal cord resulting in tethering of the nerve roots
. Epidural hematoma compressing the anterior spinal artery
. Incomplete decompression of the neural foramina

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior shift of the spinal cord resulting in tethering of the nerve roots


Explanation

C5 palsy after posterior cervical decompression is most commonly attributed to the posterior drift of the spinal cord, which tethers the relatively short C5 nerve roots. It presents as deltoid and biceps weakness.

Question 3678

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man presents with severe right leg pain, numbness over the medial aspect of his calf, and weakness in knee extension. An MRI of the lumbar spine reveals a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4


Explanation

A far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation compresses the exiting nerve root at the same level. Therefore, an L4-L5 far lateral disc compresses the L4 nerve root.

Question 3679

Topic: 6. Spine

A 58-year-old woman presents with progressive gait instability and hand clumsiness. Examination reveals positive Hoffman's signs bilaterally. MRI demonstrates multi-level cervical spondylotic myelopathy from C3-C6 with a fixed, rigid 15-degree cervical kyphosis. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Posterior cervical laminectomy alone
. Posterior cervical laminoplasty
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) or corpectomy
. Posterior cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion
. Minimally invasive posterior foraminotomies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) or corpectomy


Explanation

In cervical spondylotic myelopathy with a rigid, kyphotic deformity, an anterior approach is required to decompress the cord and correct sagittal alignment. Posterior decompression alone is contraindicated in rigid kyphosis as the cord remains draped over the anterior pathology.

Question 3680

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe acute low back pain and bilateral sciatica following heavy lifting. Which of the following is typically the earliest clinical sign or symptom of cauda equina syndrome in this setting?

. Bilateral foot drop
. Perianal anesthesia
. Fecal incontinence
. Urinary retention
. Lower extremity hyperreflexia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urinary retention


Explanation

Urinary retention is generally the most consistent and earliest sign of cauda equina syndrome. A post-void residual should be checked immediately if this is suspected.