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Question 3301

Topic: 6. Spine

In evaluating a patient with Cauda Equina Syndrome (CES), the examiner asks for the distinction between CES-I (Incomplete) and CES-R (With Retention). What is the defining clinical feature of CES-R?

. Bilateral severe radiculopathy without sphincter involvement
. Altered perianal sensation with normal voluntary bladder control
. Painless urinary retention and overflow incontinence
. Loss of the bulbocavernosus reflex only
. Fecal incontinence with normal bladder function

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Painless urinary retention and overflow incontinence


Explanation

CES-R (Retention) is characterized by painless urinary retention and overflow incontinence, indicating complete loss of executive bladder control. CES-I (Incomplete) involves altered urinary sensation or poor stream but preserves voluntary control.

Question 3302

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old male presents with bilateral sciatica, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention. MRI reveals a massive L4/L5 central disc herniation. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying cauda equina syndrome in this setting?

. Arterial ischemia of the nerve roots
. Venous congestion and localized edema of the nerve roots
. Direct axonal transection
. Demyelination of the dorsal columns
. Inflammatory radiculitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Venous congestion and localized edema of the nerve roots


Explanation

The primary mechanism of nerve root injury in cauda equina syndrome is venous congestion leading to localized edema and secondary ischemia. The nerve roots of the cauda equina lack a robust epineurium, making them highly susceptible to mechanical compression.

Question 3303

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male undergoes a multi-level posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion (C3-C7) for severe cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On post-operative day 2, he develops isolated, profound weakness in right shoulder abduction and elbow flexion. Sensation and lower extremity function remain unchanged. What is the most widely accepted primary etiology for this complication?

. Direct intraoperative injury to the C5 nerve root
. Posterior spinal cord drift causing tethering of the C5 nerve root
. Epidural hematoma compressing the hemicord
. Spinal cord ischemia due to radicular artery injury
. Inadequate foraminal decompression at C6-C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal cord drift causing tethering of the C5 nerve root


Explanation

The patient is experiencing a C5 palsy, a well-known complication following cervical decompression (more common after posterior approaches). The most widely accepted mechanism is the 'tethering effect'. Posterior drift of the spinal cord after decompression places tension on the cervical nerve roots. The C5 root is particularly vulnerable because it has a short, horizontal course and is tethered by the superior articular process. Most cases are motor-dominant and typically recover spontaneously over 6 months.

Question 3304

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a 'Hangman's fracture' (traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis). What is the classic mechanism of injury for this specific fracture pattern?

. Hyperextension and axial loading
. Hyperflexion and distraction
. Lateral bending and axial loading
. Pure rotational shear
. Axial distraction and hyperflexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension and axial loading


Explanation

A Hangman's fracture involves bilateral fractures through the pars interarticularis of C2 (axis). The classic mechanism of injury in modern trauma (such as an unrestrained passenger striking the dashboard/windshield) is hyperextension and axial loading. This differs from the original 'hangman's' mechanism of judicial hanging, which involves extreme hyperextension combined with sudden distraction.

Question 3305

Topic: 6. Spine

A 24-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 (Hangman's fracture). Radiographs show a C2-C3 angulation of 15 degrees and translation of 4 mm, with severe disruption of the C2-C3 disc space. According to the Levine-Edwards classification, this is a Type IIA fracture. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate halo-gravity traction with 15 lbs of weight
. Application of a halo vest in slight distraction
. Application of a halo vest in slight compression and extension
. Anterior C2-C3 cervical discectomy and fusion
. Posterior C1-C3 fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Application of a halo vest in slight compression and extension


Explanation

Levine-Edwards Type IIA fractures involve severe angulation with minimal translation and indicate a flexion-distraction injury with an intact anterior longitudinal ligament. Traction is strictly contraindicated as it can cause over-distraction and neurologic injury. Treatment consists of closed reduction in extension and slight compression under fluoroscopy, followed by halo vest application.

Question 3306

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old female presents with bilateral leg pain and cramping that worsens with walking and prolonged standing. She states that the pain is relieved when she sits down or leans forward over a shopping cart. The stationary bicycle test is performed to differentiate neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication. Which of the following responses on the stationary bicycle test strongly supports a diagnosis of neurogenic claudication?

. Leg pain occurs at the same distance regardless of spinal posture
. Leg pain is delayed or prevented when cycling with the spine flexed compared to cycling with the spine extended
. Calf pain occurs rapidly and is accompanied by diminished pedal pulses after cycling
. Leg pain is reproduced only when pedaling against high resistance in a flexed posture
. Leg pain is completely unaffected by either cycling or walking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Leg pain is delayed or prevented when cycling with the spine flexed compared to cycling with the spine extended


Explanation

The stationary bicycle test (van Gelderen bicycle test) differentiates neurogenic from vascular claudication. In neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis), spinal flexion increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina, relieving compression on the nerve roots. Therefore, the patient can pedal a stationary bicycle longer and with less pain when leaning forward (flexed spine) compared to pedaling in an upright/extended posture. Vascular claudication is exertion-dependent and not posture-dependent.

Question 3307

Topic: 6. Spine

Imaging reveals a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) in a 24-year-old male following a motor vehicle accident. The lateral radiograph demonstrates severe angulation but minimal translation at the C2-C3 junction, indicative of a Levine-Edwards Type IIa fracture. What is the classic contraindication in the acute management of this specific fracture pattern?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Cervical traction
. Anterior C2-C3 discectomy and fusion
. Posterior C2-C3 pedicle screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

A Levine-Edwards Type IIa Hangman's fracture features severe angulation with minimal translation. It is caused by a flexion-distraction injury, and the C2-C3 disc space is significantly disrupted. Cervical traction is strictly contraindicated as it can cause catastrophic distraction at the C2-C3 space and subsequent neurologic injury. Treatment usually involves gentle compression/extension in a Halo vest.

Question 3308

Topic: 6. Spine

Recombinant human Bone Morphogenetic Protein-2 (rhBMP-2) is utilized in spine surgery to enhance arthrodesis. When used off-label in anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), what is the most significant and potentially life-threatening complication associated with its use?

. High rates of recalcitrant pseudarthrosis
. Malignant transformation of surrounding soft tissues
. Severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling and airway compromise
. Dural erosion leading to high-flow cerebrospinal fluid leak
. Accelerated adjacent segment disease within 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling and airway compromise


Explanation

The use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine has been associated with a massive, exaggerated inflammatory response leading to severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling, dysphagia, and potentially lethal airway compromise. Consequently, the FDA issued a warning regarding its use in the anterior cervical spine.

Question 3309

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male presents with a 4-week history of radiating neck pain into his right arm. Physical examination reveals a diminished reflex, specific motor weakness, and sensory alterations. Which of the following constellations of physical examination findings is most consistent with a C6 radiculopathy?

. Weakness in shoulder abduction, sensory loss over the lateral deltoid, and diminished biceps reflex
. Weakness in wrist extension, sensory loss over the thumb and index finger, and diminished brachioradialis reflex
. Weakness in wrist flexion, sensory loss over the middle finger, and diminished triceps reflex
. Weakness in finger abduction, sensory loss over the ulnar border of the hand, and preserved reflexes
. Weakness in elbow extension, sensory loss over the medial forearm, and diminished triceps reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in wrist extension, sensory loss over the thumb and index finger, and diminished brachioradialis reflex


Explanation

A C6 radiculopathy typically results from compression of the C6 nerve root (often due to a C5-C6 disc herniation). The classic clinical presentation includes weakness in wrist extension and elbow flexion (the latter shared with C5), sensory loss or paresthesias over the lateral forearm, thumb, and index finger, and a diminished or absent brachioradialis reflex.

Question 3310

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old female presents with bilateral leg pain and cramping that worsens with prolonged standing and walking, but improves when she leans forward over a shopping cart. MRI demonstrates severe central lumbar spinal stenosis at L4-L5. Hypertrophy of which of the following ligaments is the primary contributor to dorsal compression of the thecal sac in this condition?

. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Anterior longitudinal ligament
. Ligamentum flavum
. Interspinous ligament
. Supraspinous ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligamentum flavum


Explanation

The patient exhibits classic symptoms of neurogenic claudication ('shopping cart sign') secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis. Central canal stenosis in the degenerative spine is typically caused by a combination of anterior compression (disc bulging), lateral compression (facet joint hypertrophy), and dorsal compression. The ligamentum flavum, which spans the laminae posteriorly, undergoes age-related hypertrophy and buckling, acting as the primary dorsal compressive force on the thecal sac and nerve roots.

Question 3311

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with deteriorating handwriting, difficulty buttoning his shirt, and a broad-based, unsteady gait. Examination reveals a positive Hoffman's sign and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. Which of the following physical examination tests specifically assesses upper extremity fine motor function in the setting of cervical myelopathy by counting repetitions?

. Spurling's test
. Lhermitte's sign
. 10-second grip and release test
. Babinski reflex
. Finger escape sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10-second grip and release test


Explanation

The 10-second grip and release test is used to evaluate fine motor coordination and hand function in patients with cervical myelopathy. A normal result is the ability to fully open and close the hand 20 or more times in 10 seconds. Spurling's test evaluates cervical radiculopathy, while Lhermitte's sign indicates posterior column irritation.

Question 3312

Topic: 6. Spine

In the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), neurological status is a primary determinant of the final score and treatment recommendation. Which of the following neurological statuses is assigned the highest point value (3 points)?

. Intact neurological status
. Nerve root injury
. Complete spinal cord injury
. Incomplete spinal cord injury
. Transient neurological deficit (Spinal shock)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Incomplete spinal cord injury


Explanation

In the TLICS system, neurological status is scored as: Intact = 0; Nerve root injury = 2; Complete spinal cord injury = 2; Incomplete spinal cord injury or cauda equina syndrome = 3. Incomplete SCI scores highest because surgical decompression is most likely to result in neurological improvement.

Question 3313

Topic: 6. Spine

A 60-year-old male presents with bilateral neurogenic claudication that improves when leaning forward on a shopping cart. MRI of the lumbar spine confirms severe central canal stenosis at L4-L5. Hypertrophy of which of the following ligaments directly contributes to the reduction in the cross-sectional area of the central canal?

. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Anterior longitudinal ligament
. Ligamentum flavum
. Interspinous ligament
. Supraspinous ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligamentum flavum


Explanation

Lumbar spinal stenosis is commonly caused by a combination of disc bulging anteriorly, facet joint hypertrophy laterally, and ligamentum flavum hypertrophy posteriorly. The ligamentum flavum spans the interlaminar space and its infolding or hypertrophy directly encroaches on the posterior aspect of the central spinal canal.

Question 3314

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old male sustains a T12 burst fracture after a fall. He is neurologically intact. In calculating the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following radiographic findings is most specifically indicative of an unstable Posterior Ligamentous Complex (PLC) injury that would push the score toward surgical management?

. Splaying of the pedicles on the AP radiograph
. Retropulsed bone fragment compromising 40% of the spinal canal
. Loss of anterior vertebral body height greater than 30%
. Widening of the interspinous distance on AP or sagittal imaging
. Anterior wedge compression of the adjacent L1 vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Widening of the interspinous distance on AP or sagittal imaging


Explanation

The Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score relies heavily on the status of the Posterior Ligamentous Complex (PLC). Widening of the interspinous distance is a direct radiographic sign of PLC disruption. A disrupted PLC scores 3 points on the TLICS system, heavily weighing the treatment algorithm toward surgical stabilization, even in the absence of neurologic deficit.

Question 3315

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male presents with deteriorating hand dexterity and a broad-based gait. Examination reveals hyperreflexia in the lower extremities and a positive Hoffmann sign. Which of the following MRI findings is most indicative of a poor prognosis for neurological recovery following surgical decompression for cervical spondylotic myelopathy?

. High signal intensity on T2-weighted images alone
. Low signal intensity on T1-weighted images with high signal on T2
. Multilevel anterior osteophytes
. Loss of cervical lordosis
. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low signal intensity on T1-weighted images with high signal on T2


Explanation

In cervical spondylotic myelopathy, high signal on T2 alone indicates edema or gliosis and can be reversible. However, low signal intensity on T1-weighted images coupled with high signal on T2 indicates cystic necrosis, myelomalacia, and permanent cord damage, which is strongly correlated with a poor prognosis for recovery.

Question 3316

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In an isthmic spondylolisthesis (Wiltse Type II) at L5-S1, the primary pathology is a defect in the pars interarticularis. Which exiting nerve root is most commonly compressed, and where does the compression typically occur?

. L4 root in the lateral recess
. L5 root in the neuroforamen
. S1 root in the lateral recess
. S1 root in the neuroforamen
. L5 root in the central canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5 root in the neuroforamen


Explanation

In L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, the L5 pars defect results in an accumulation of fibrocartilaginous tissue (the pars hook or Gill nodule). This hypertrophic tissue, combined with the anterior translation of the L5 vertebral body relative to the posterior elements, typically compresses the exiting L5 nerve root within the neuroforamen.

Question 3317

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old male presents with deteriorating manual dexterity and gait instability. On examination, 'flicking' the nail of his middle finger downward elicits a reflexive flexion of his thumb and index finger. This positive Hoffmann sign indicates an upper motor neuron lesion within which of the following spinal tracts?

. Spinothalamic tract
. Dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract
. Corticospinal tract
. Vestibulospinal tract
. Rubrospinal tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Corticospinal tract


Explanation

A positive Hoffmann sign is a clinical indicator of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion, particularly characteristic of cervical spondylotic myelopathy. It reflects hyperreflexia due to a loss of descending inhibition from the lateral corticospinal tract, which is responsible for voluntary motor control.

Question 3318

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A spinal surgeon is evaluating a 45-year-old patient for an isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. Radiographic measurements reveal a Pelvic Incidence (PI) of 60 degrees and a Pelvic Tilt (PT) of 25 degrees. Based on the established geometric relationship of spinopelvic parameters, what is the patient's Sacral Slope (SS)?

. 25 degrees
. 35 degrees
. 45 degrees
. 60 degrees
. 85 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 35 degrees


Explanation

The fundamental formula relating pelvic parameters is: Pelvic Incidence (PI) = Pelvic Tilt (PT) + Sacral Slope (SS). Since PI (60) = PT (25) + SS, the Sacral Slope is calculated as 60 - 25 = 35 degrees.

Question 3319

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following clinical or radiographic findings is a strict contraindication to performing a cervical laminoplasty for a patient with cervical spondylotic myelopathy?

. K-line positive ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)
. Loss of cervical lordosis (kyphosis > 13 degrees)
. Involvement of 3 or more disc levels
. Concomitant congenital cervical stenosis
. Patient age greater than 75 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of cervical lordosis (kyphosis > 13 degrees)


Explanation

Cervical laminoplasty relies on the posterior 'drift back' of the spinal cord to achieve indirect decompression. In patients with significant cervical kyphosis or K-line negative OPLL, the cord will remain draped over the anterior pathology, failing to decompress effectively. Therefore, clinically significant kyphosis is a primary contraindication for laminoplasty alone; these patients typically require an anterior approach or a posterior decompression with instrumented fusion to correct alignment.

Question 3320

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old male sustains an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is his total score and recommended treatment?

. Score 2; Non-operative management
. Score 4; Operative management
. Score 5; Operative management
. Score 2; Operative management
. Score 4; Non-operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 2; Non-operative management


Explanation

The TLICS score assigns points based on morphology, neurologic status, and PLC integrity. Morphology: Burst fracture = 2 points. Neurologic status: Intact = 0 points. PLC: Intact = 0 points. Total score = 2. A TLICS score of <= 3 indicates non-operative management (e.g., TLSO brace). A score of 4 is indeterminate, and >= 5 indicates operative management.