This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3281
Topic: 6. Spine
A 72-year-old male presents with bilateral lower extremity pain and cramping that worsens with walking and improves with sitting. To differentiate neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication, a bicycle test is performed. Which of the following findings is characteristic of neurogenic claudication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Leg pain is relieved or delayed when cycling in a flexed spine posture
Explanation
In neurogenic claudication caused by lumbar spinal stenosis, symptoms are typically relieved by lumbar flexion, which increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal. Patients can cycle comfortably for longer periods when leaning forward.
Question 3282
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old male of Asian descent presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands and a broad-based gait. Imaging shows multi-level ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C6 causing severe cord compression. His cervical alignment demonstrates 15 degrees of kyphosis. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion
Explanation
In patients with cervical myelopathy secondary to OPLL who also have a kyphotic alignment (typically >13-15 degrees), an anterior decompression and fusion (e.g., corpectomy) is favored. Posterior approaches rely on cord drift, which does not effectively occur in kyphotic deformities because the K-line is negative.
Question 3283
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 68-year-old male presents with incapacitating low back pain and significant postural changes. Standing X-rays reveal a severe thoracolumbar kyphoscoliosis with a positive sagittal vertical axis (SVA) of +10 cm and a pelvic incidence (PI) of 60 degrees. The patient has undergone prior L3-S1 fusion. Revision surgery is planned. Considering modern spinopelvic parameters, what is the most critical sagittal parameter to restore for optimal long-term outcomes and pain relief in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) less than 5 cm
Explanation
For adult spinal deformity, particularly with significant positive sagittal vertical axis (SVA), restoring SVA to less than 5 cm is considered the most critical goal for improving pain and functional outcomes. While aligning Lumbar Lordosis (LL) with Pelvic Incidence (PI) (LL ≈ PI ± 9 degrees) and maintaining a Pelvic Tilt (PT) <20-25 degrees are vital components for achieving overall sagittal balance, a persistently positive SVA is independently correlated with worse outcomes and significantly higher disability. The global balance is ultimately reflected by SVA, which quantifies the deviation of the plumb line from the sacrum.
Question 3284
Topic: 6. Spine
A 72-year-old male with degenerative cervical myelopathy is scheduled for a posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion. Preoperatively, he exhibits a modified Japanese Orthopaedic Association (mJOA) score of 12. Which of the following preoperative MRI findings correlates most strongly with a poor neurological recovery following decompression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Presence of a high-intensity signal on T2 and low-intensity signal on T1-weighted images
Explanation
In cervical spondylotic myelopathy, spinal cord signal changes showing high intensity on T2 and low intensity on T1-weighted MRI indicate myelomalacia (permanent cord necrosis and cystic changes). This combination is a strong predictor of poor postoperative neurological recovery.
Question 3285
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old male with severe cervical myelopathy due to ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3-C6 presents for surgical evaluation. MRI and lateral radiographs show a fixed kyphotic alignment. The OPLL mass crosses the K-line (K-line negative). What is the most appropriate surgical strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cervical corpectomy and fusion (ACCF)
Explanation
In OPLL with a negative K-line and cervical kyphosis, posterior decompression fails to allow the spinal cord to drift backward away from the anterior mass. An anterior decompression and fusion (or combined anterior-posterior approach) is required to relieve cord compression.
Question 3286
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old Asian male presents with progressive bilateral hand dexterity loss and a wide-based gait. Cervical CT demonstrates continuous ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL) from C3 to C6.
The 'K-line' connects the midpoints of the spinal canal at C2 and C7 on a neutral sagittal image. In this patient, the OPLL mass crosses the K-line (K-line negative). What is the surgical implication of this finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior decompression alone will likely result in poor neurological recovery.
Explanation
A 'K-line negative' cervical spine means the OPLL mass exceeds the K-line, indicating severe localized compression or cervical kyphosis. Posterior decompression alone allows insufficient posterior spinal cord shift in these patients, resulting in poor neurological recovery, thus mandating an anterior or combined approach.
Question 3287
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 20-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using a palmaris longus autograft. Which functional bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress and is the primary target of this reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. The anterior band is taut in extension, while the posterior band is taut in flexion; reconstructions primarily focus on restoring the stabilizing properties of the anterior bundle.
Question 3288
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe low back pain and bilateral leg weakness following a fall from standing. He has a known history of prostate cancer with bone metastases. On examination, he has bilateral lower extremity weakness (3/5) and urinary retention. Which of the following investigations is most crucial for immediate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the entire spine.
Explanation
This patient presents with signs and symptoms highly suggestive of acute cauda equina syndrome secondary to spinal cord compression, likely from metastatic disease, given his history of prostate cancer. Urinary retention and bilateral leg weakness are red flag symptoms. An urgent MRI of the entire spine (or at least the thoracolumbar region) is crucial to define the level and extent of compression, as this dictates surgical planning for decompression. Plain radiographs and CT scans are less sensitive for spinal cord compression and soft tissue involvement. A bone scan would show metabolic activity but not directly assess compression. EMG is not an acute diagnostic tool for cord compression.
Question 3289
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male sustains a fall from a roof and is found to have a C5 burst fracture with incomplete spinal cord injury (ASIA C). He has significant pain and weakness. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical decompression and stabilization.
Explanation
For an unstable cervical spine fracture (like a burst fracture) with an incomplete spinal cord injury (ASIA C), immediate surgical decompression and stabilization are generally indicated. Early surgical intervention aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord, restore spinal alignment, and stabilize the spine, potentially improving neurological recovery. While initial immobilization (hard collar) and pain control are important, they are not definitive. High-dose methylprednisolone is no longer routinely recommended for acute spinal cord injury due to lack of clear benefit and potential for harm. Traction may be used for specific fracture patterns or dislocations, but not as the sole immediate definitive management for a burst fracture with neurological deficit. MRI is crucial for assessing cord compression, but if the fracture type is clear and neurological deficit present, delaying surgery for observation is inappropriate.
Question 3290
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision, resulting in severe cervical hyperextension. CT of the cervical spine reveals bilateral fractures through the pars interarticularis of C2 with 2 mm of C2-C3 anterior translation. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hangman's fracture
Explanation
A Hangman's fracture (traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis) involves bilateral fractures of the C2 pars interarticularis, typically caused by hyperextension and axial loading. Mildly displaced injuries (Levine-Edwards Type I) are generally treated with a rigid cervical collar.
Question 3291
Topic: 6. Spine
The spinothalamic tract is a major ascending pathway for pain and temperature sensation. Where do the second-order neurons of the spinothalamic tract decussate (cross to the contralateral side)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In the spinal cord at the level of entry
Explanation
The spinothalamic tract is a crucial pathway for transmitting pain and temperature sensations from the body to the brain. First-order neurons, with their cell bodies in the dorsal root ganglia, enter the spinal cord and synapse in the dorsal horn. The second-order neurons originate in the dorsal horn, immediately cross the midline (decussate) in the anterior white commissure, usually within one or two spinal segments above their entry level. They then ascend contralaterally through the spinal cord, brainstem, and terminate in the thalamus, where they synapse with third-order neurons projecting to the somatosensory cortex.
Question 3292
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old man presents with upper extremity weakness that is disproportionately greater than his lower extremity weakness following a hyperextension cervical spine injury. Which spinal cord syndrome is most likely?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome typically occurs after hyperextension injuries in patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis. The centrally located cervical tracts supplying the upper extremities are more severely affected than the peripheral lower extremity tracts.
Question 3293
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old woman presents with neck pain radiating to her middle finger, weakness in elbow extension, and an absent triceps reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C7
Explanation
C7 radiculopathy is characterized by weakness in elbow extension (triceps), wrist flexion, and finger extension, along with an absent triceps reflex. Sensory changes classically occur in the middle finger.
Question 3294
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male is evaluated for acute cauda equina syndrome secondary to a massive L4-L5 disc herniation. Which of the following preoperative clinical findings is the most reliable predictor of postoperative urinary bladder function recovery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severity of preoperative perineal saddle anesthesia
Explanation
The severity of the neurological deficit at presentation, particularly the degree of saddle anesthesia and preoperative bladder dysfunction, is the strongest prognostic indicator for long-term urologic recovery.
Question 3295
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male with progressive gait deterioration presents for evaluation. On examination, a rapid flicking of the distal phalanx of the middle finger results in spontaneous flexion of the thumb and index finger (positive Hoffmann's sign). This physical finding typically indicates an upper motor neuron lesion above which specific spinal cord level?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5
Explanation
A positive Hoffmann's sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion in the cervical spine. It specifically points to cord compression or dysfunction at or above the C5/C6 level.
Question 3296
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old female presents with acute onset of bilateral sciatica, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention with overflow incontinence following a heavy lifting injury. An MRI confirms a massive L4-L5 disc herniation. What is the most critical prognostic factor for postoperative bladder function recovery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Time from symptom onset to surgical decompression
Explanation
The most significant predictor of neurological recovery, particularly bladder and bowel function, in Cauda Equina Syndrome is the time to surgical decompression. Surgery should ideally be performed within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset to maximize functional recovery.
Question 3297
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old man presents after a motor vehicle accident with neck pain. A lateral cervical spine radiograph shows a bilateral pars interarticularis fracture of C2 with 2 mm of anterior displacement of C2 on C3 and no angulation. What is the Levine-Edwards classification of this fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type I
Explanation
A Levine-Edwards Type I Hangman's fracture involves bilateral pars interarticularis fractures of C2 with less than 3 mm of displacement and no significant angulation. It is a highly stable injury typically treated conservatively with a rigid cervical collar.
Question 3298
Topic: 6. Spine
A candidate is discussing common inflammatory arthropathies. Which specific HLA allele is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis and other spondyloarthropathies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. HLA-B27.
Explanation
HLA-B27 is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and inflammatory bowel disease-associated arthritis, collectively known as spondyloarthropathies. While other HLA alleles are associated with different conditions (e.g., HLA-DR4 with rheumatoid arthritis), HLA-B27 is the hallmark for spondyloarthropathies.
Question 3299
Topic: 6. Spine
When assessing a patient for a potential cervical spine injury in a trauma setting, which finding necessitates immediate immobilization and further imaging, even if the patient is neurologically intact?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Midline cervical spine tenderness.
Explanation
Midline cervical spine tenderness, even in a neurologically intact patient, is a red flag and necessitates immediate cervical spine immobilization and further imaging (e.g., CT scan) until an injury is ruled out. This is a critical principle in ATLS and spinal trauma assessment. Scalp lacerations or headaches are non-specific. Extremity paresthesia suggests neurological involvement and definitely requires attention, but midline tenderness alone in an 'intact' patient (meaning no obvious neurological deficit yet) is a crucial sign for initial management. A clavicle fracture is a separate injury.
Question 3300
Topic: 6. Spine
A candidate is asked about the 'three-column concept' of spinal stability. Which column is primarily responsible for resisting axial compression and is often compromised in burst fractures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle column.
Explanation
The Denis three-column concept divides the spine into anterior, middle, and posterior columns. The middle column, comprising the posterior half of the vertebral body, the posterior annulus fibrosus, and the posterior longitudinal ligament, is crucial for resisting axial compression. Its compromise, especially in burst fractures where bone fragments retropulse into the spinal canal, signifies instability and potential neurological risk. The anterior column consists of the anterior longitudinal ligament and the anterior half of the vertebral body. The posterior column consists of the pedicles, laminae, facet joints, and posterior ligamentous complex. There is no 'lateral' or 'neural' column in this classification.
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