This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 241
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Which of the following spinopelvic profiles is most classically associated with the development and progression of high-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis (e.g., L5-S1) in an adolescent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. High Pelvic Incidence (PI)
Explanation
High pelvic incidence (PI) is a primary predisposing factor for the development and progression of isthmic spondylolisthesis. A higher PI requires a higher sacral slope and compensatory lumbar lordosis, increasing the shear forces across the L5-S1 pars interarticularis.
Question 242
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient develops Proximal Junctional Kyphosis (PJK) following a T10 to pelvis posterior spinal fusion. Which of the following factors most significantly increases the risk of developing PJK?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Over-correction of lumbar lordosis relative to pelvic incidence
Explanation
Over-correction of sagittal alignment, specifically excessive lumbar lordosis and shifting the SVA too far posteriorly, significantly increases mechanical stress at the proximal junction, leading to PJK. Extensive disruption of the posterior tension band is also a major risk factor.
Question 243
Topic: 6. Spine
In an asymptomatic adult with a normal spine, the C7 plumb line (Sagittal Vertical Axis) should ideally fall within what distance relative to the posterior superior corner of the S1 endplate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Less than 5 cm anterior or posterior
Explanation
In a normally aligned spine, the C7 plumb line should fall within 5 cm (anteriorly or posteriorly) of the posterior superior corner of the S1 endplate. Values greater than 5 cm anteriorly define positive sagittal imbalance.
Question 244
Topic: 6. Spine
A 70-year-old male presents with severe leaning forward. You measure his T1 Pelvic Angle (T1PA). Which of the following best describes the advantage of using T1PA over Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) in assessing global spinal alignment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. T1PA is an angular measurement that is independent of postural compensation
Explanation
The T1 Pelvic Angle (T1PA) is the angle between a line from the femoral heads to T1 and a line from the femoral heads to the S1 endplate. Unlike SVA, it is an angular measure that is not affected by pelvic retroversion or knee flexion compensations.
Question 245
Topic: 6. Spine
A normal aging spine typically undergoes which of the following combined sagittal plane changes over time?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased lumbar lordosis and increased thoracic kyphosis
Explanation
With normal aging, disc degeneration and loss of anterior column height lead to a decrease in lumbar lordosis and an increase in thoracic kyphosis. This progression often shifts the global alignment toward a positive sagittal vertical axis.
Question 246
Topic: 6. Spine
When evaluating cervical spine sagittal balance, the Cervical Sagittal Vertical Axis (cSVA) is typically measured as the distance between the C2 plumb line and the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior superior corner of C7
Explanation
The cervical SVA (cSVA) is defined as the horizontal distance from a plumb line dropped from the centroid of C2 to the posterior superior corner of the C7 vertebral body. A normal cSVA is generally less than 4 cm.
Question 247
Topic: 6. Spine
A 16-year-old male is evaluated for hyperkyphosis. Radiographs reveal anterior wedging of 6 degrees at T7, T8, and T9. What is the most likely diagnosis based on Sorensen's criteria?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scheuermann's disease
Explanation
Sorensen's criteria for Scheuermann's kyphosis require the presence of at least 5 degrees of anterior wedging in at least three adjacent vertebrae. Additional findings often include Schmorl's nodes and irregular endplates.
Question 248
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Which of the following describes the mathematical relationship between pelvic incidence (PI), pelvic tilt (PT), and sacral slope (SS)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PI = PT + SS
Explanation
Pelvic incidence is a fixed morphological parameter determined by the equation PI = PT + SS. As an individual changes position, PT and SS vary inversely to maintain a constant PI.
Question 249
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In an aging patient developing progressive sagittal imbalance (positive sagittal vertical axis), which of the following is the primary initial compensatory mechanism at the pelvis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic retroversion (increased pelvic tilt)
Explanation
To compensate for a positive sagittal vertical axis (forward leaning), the body retroverts the pelvis, which increases pelvic tilt (PT) and decreases sacral slope (SS). Knee flexion and cervical hyperlordosis are secondary compensations.
Question 250
Topic: 6. Spine
According to the SRS-Schwab adult spinal deformity classification, an ideal post-operative alignment goal for the relationship between Pelvic Incidence (PI) and Lumbar Lordosis (LL) is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PI - LL < 10 degrees
Explanation
The SRS-Schwab criteria recommend a post-operative PI-LL mismatch of less than 10 degrees to achieve optimal sagittal balance and reduce adjacent segment disease. Other targets include a PT < 20 degrees and SVA < 50 mm.
Question 251
Topic: 6. Spine
In a normal standing adult with balanced sagittal alignment, which vertebra typically has its endplates perfectly parallel to the floor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L3
Explanation
In normal sagittal alignment, L3 is typically the apex of the lumbar lordosis curve or the vertebra positioned with its endplates most horizontal (parallel) to the ground.
Question 252
Topic: 6. Spine
Which parameter in the cervical spine is considered the morphological equivalent of pelvic incidence and remains constant regardless of patient positioning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracic inlet angle (TIA)
Explanation
The Thoracic Inlet Angle (TIA) is a fixed anatomical parameter defined as the sum of T1 slope and Neck Tilt (TIA = T1S + NT). It dictates the amount of cervical lordosis required for horizontal gaze.
Question 253
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Sorensen's criteria for the radiographic diagnosis of Scheuermann's disease requires anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in how many consecutive vertebrae?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Three
Explanation
Scheuermann's kyphosis is classically defined by Sorensen criteria, which require anterior wedging of 5 degrees or more in at least three adjacent vertebrae. It typically involves rigid thoracic hyperkyphosis and Schmorl's nodes.
Question 254
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Which pelvic parameter is typically significantly elevated in patients with high-grade dysplastic spondylolisthesis compared to the normal population?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic incidence
Explanation
A high Pelvic Incidence (PI) increases shear forces at the lumbosacral junction and is strongly associated with the development and progression of isthmic and dysplastic spondylolisthesis.
Question 255
Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following congenital spinal anomalies has the highest risk of rapid curve progression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra
Explanation
A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral fully segmented hemivertebra has the worst prognosis for progression. It represents a combination of restricted growth on one side and accelerated asymmetric growth on the other.
Question 256
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old female undergoes T10-pelvis fusion for adult spinal deformity. Six months later, she develops Proximal Junctional Kyphosis (PJK). By definition, the proximal junctional sagittal angle must be at least:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 degrees greater than preoperative
Explanation
PJK is classically defined as a proximal junctional angle >10 degrees that is also at least 10 degrees greater than the preoperative measurement. It most commonly occurs at the uppermost instrumented vertebra (UIV) and UIV+2.
Question 257
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient with ankylosing spondylitis requires a pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) for severe chin-on-chest deformity. A single-level lumbar PSO typically provides approximately how many degrees of sagittal correction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30 - 35 degrees
Explanation
A pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) is a three-column wedge osteotomy hinged at the anterior longitudinal ligament. It typically yields about 30 to 35 degrees of lordotic correction per level.
Question 258
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
With normal aging, which of the following sequences best represents the typical cascade of sagittal spinal alignment changes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of lumbar lordosis, forward shift of SVA, pelvic retroversion, knee flexion
Explanation
Aging typically causes disc degeneration and loss of lumbar lordosis, leading to a positive (forward) sagittal vertical axis (SVA). The body compensates sequentially via pelvic retroversion (increased PT), hip extension, and finally knee flexion.
Question 259
Topic: 6. Spine
The Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA) is a key metric in evaluating global spinal alignment. It is measured as the horizontal distance between a plumb line dropped from the center of C7 and which anatomical landmark?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior superior corner of S1
Explanation
The SVA is measured as the horizontal offset between the C7 plumb line and the posterior superior corner of the S1 endplate. A normal SVA is considered to be less than 50 mm.
Question 260
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
When a healthy individual transitions from a standing to a seated position, how do the pelvic parameters normally adjust?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic tilt increases and sacral slope decreases
Explanation
During sitting, the pelvis undergoes retroversion to accommodate hip flexion and maintain trunk balance. This results in an increased pelvic tilt (PT) and a correspondingly decreased sacral slope (SS), while pelvic incidence (PI) remains constant.
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