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Question 221

Topic: 6. Spine

Osteochondromas in the spine most commonly occur in:

. Posterior elements of the cervical spine
. Posterior elements of the thoracic spine
. Posterior elements of the lumbar spine
. Posterior elements of the sacral spine
. Vertebral body of the thoracic spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior elements of the cervical spine


Explanation

Osteochondromas most commonly occur in the appendicular skeleton but can also occur in the spine (<5% of cases). When present in the spine, solitary osteochondromas have a predilection for the cervical spine. They can, however, also occur in the thoracic and lumbar spine. Sacral involvement is rare.

Question 222

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following equations correctly defines the relationship between spinopelvic parameters?

. PI = PT - SS
. PI = PT + SS
. PT = PI + SS
. SS = PI + PT
. PI = SS - PT

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PI = PT + SS


Explanation

Pelvic incidence (PI) is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the sum of pelvic tilt (PT) and sacral slope (SS). Therefore, PI = PT + SS.

Question 223

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following spinopelvic parameters is considered a fixed morphological parameter that does not change with posture after skeletal maturity?

. Pelvic tilt
. Sacral slope
. Lumbar lordosis
. Pelvic incidence
. Sagittal vertical axis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic incidence


Explanation

Pelvic incidence is a fixed anatomical parameter dictated by the morphology of the pelvis. It remains constant regardless of posture, unlike pelvic tilt and sacral slope which act as dynamic compensatory parameters.

Question 224

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

When planning surgical correction for adult spinal deformity, the generally accepted target for lumbar lordosis (LL) relative to pelvic incidence (PI) is:

. LL should equal PI + 20 degrees
. LL should be within 10 degrees of PI
. LL should be exactly half of the PI
. LL should equal PI - 20 degrees
. LL is independent of PI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. LL should be within 10 degrees of PI


Explanation

For optimal sagittal balance, the lumbar lordosis should be matched to the patient's pelvic incidence. The widely accepted target for correction is to have PI minus LL be less than or equal to 10 degrees.

Question 225

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

As a patient develops positive sagittal imbalance due to age-related degenerative loss of lumbar lordosis, which of the following compensatory mechanisms initially occurs at the pelvis?

. Decreased pelvic tilt
. Decreased sacral slope
. Increased sacral slope
. Decreased pelvic incidence
. Increased pelvic incidence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased sacral slope


Explanation

To compensate for a loss of lumbar lordosis and an anterior shift of the sagittal vertical axis, the pelvis retroverts. This pelvic retroversion results in an increased pelvic tilt and a reciprocally decreased sacral slope.

Question 226

Topic: 6. Spine

A patient with ankylosing spondylitis presents with severe cervicothoracic kyphosis. Surgical correction is planned. What is the optimal target for the chin-brow vertical angle (CBVA) to ensure appropriate forward gaze?

. -10 to 0 degrees
. 10 to 20 degrees
. 25 to 35 degrees
. 40 to 50 degrees
. 0 to -15 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 20 degrees


Explanation

The chin-brow vertical angle (CBVA) evaluates horizontal gaze and functional vision. An angle between 10 and 20 degrees is generally considered optimal to allow patients to see straight ahead and walk safely.

Question 227

Topic: 6. Spine

In the evaluation of cervical sagittal balance, the T1 slope is most analogous to which parameter in the lumbar spinopelvic evaluation?

. Pelvic tilt
. Sacral slope
. Pelvic incidence
. Lumbar lordosis
. Thoracic kyphosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic incidence


Explanation

The T1 slope acts as the foundational parameter for the cervical spine, dictating the magnitude of required cervical lordosis to maintain balance. It is highly analogous to pelvic incidence in the lumbar spine.

Question 228

Topic: 6. Spine

Proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK) after long-segment spinal fusion is typically defined as a proximal junctional sagittal Cobb angle of at least 10 degrees and a change from the preoperative measurement of at least:

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 15 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 25 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 degrees


Explanation

Proximal junctional kyphosis is defined as a proximal junctional angle greater than 10 degrees. Furthermore, it requires an abnormal increase of at least 10 degrees compared to preoperative standing measurements.

Question 229

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following spinopelvic parameter profiles is most characteristically associated with a high risk of progression in L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis?

. Low pelvic incidence and high sacral slope
. High pelvic incidence and high sacral slope
. Low pelvic incidence and low sacral slope
. High pelvic incidence and low pelvic tilt
. Low pelvic tilt and high sacral slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High pelvic incidence and high sacral slope


Explanation

High pelvic incidence forces a correspondingly high sacral slope, which exponentially increases anterior shear forces at the L5-S1 junction. This specific profile is strongly associated with the development and progression of isthmic spondylolisthesis.

Question 230

Topic: 6. Spine

In a healthy adult with normal sagittal alignment, which vertebra typically represents the apex of thoracic kyphosis?

. T4 or T5
. T6 or T7
. T8 or T9
. T10 or T11
. T12

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T6 or T7


Explanation

The normal thoracic kyphosis spans from T1 to T12. The structural apex of this curve is typically located around T6 or T7.

Question 231

Topic: 6. Spine

Cervical sagittal vertical axis (cSVA) is used to assess cervical spinal alignment. It is measured as the horizontal distance between the C2 plumb line and the:

. Anterior superior corner of C7
. Posterior superior corner of C7
. Posterior inferior corner of C7
. Anterior inferior corner of T1
. Center of the C7 vertebral body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior superior corner of C7


Explanation

The cervical SVA is measured as the horizontal distance from the C2 plumb line to the posterior superior corner of the C7 endplate. Normal values are generally less than 4 cm, with higher values correlating with disability.

Question 232

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In an individual standing upright, if the pelvic incidence is 50 degrees and the pelvic tilt is 15 degrees, what is the orientation of the sacral endplate relative to the horizontal plane?

. 15 degrees
. 35 degrees
. 50 degrees
. 65 degrees
. 0 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 35 degrees


Explanation

The sacral slope (SS) is defined as the angle of the sacral endplate relative to the horizontal plane. Since Pelvic Incidence = Pelvic Tilt + Sacral Slope, the SS must be 35 degrees (50 - 15 = 35).

Question 233

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is considered the normal range for cervical lordosis (measured from C2 to C7) in asymptomatic adults?

. 0 to 10 degrees
. 20 to 40 degrees
. 50 to 60 degrees
. 60 to 70 degrees
. -10 to -20 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 to 40 degrees


Explanation

Normal cervical lordosis measured from C2 to C7 generally ranges from 20 to 40 degrees. The subaxial spine (C3-C7) works in tandem with the upper cervical spine to maintain a horizontal gaze and global alignment.

Question 234

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

According to the Roussouly classification of sagittal alignment, a Type 1 spine is typically characterized by which of the following features?

. High pelvic incidence and high sacral slope
. Low sacral slope (<35 degrees) with a long thoracolumbar kyphosis and short lumbar lordosis
. Normal sacral slope with an evenly distributed lumbar lordosis
. High pelvic incidence (>60 degrees) with severe global kyphosis
. Normal pelvic incidence but a completely flat lumbar spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low sacral slope (<35 degrees) with a long thoracolumbar kyphosis and short lumbar lordosis


Explanation

In the Roussouly classification, Type 1 is characterized by a low sacral slope (less than 35 degrees) and a low pelvic incidence. The lumbar lordosis is notably short and concentrated distally, coupled with a prominent thoracolumbar kyphosis.

Question 235

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 65-year-old woman presents with progressive low back pain and leaning forward while walking. Radiographs reveal a pelvic incidence (PI) of 60 degrees. Which of the following formulas correctly defines the relationship between pelvic incidence, pelvic tilt (PT), and sacral slope (SS)?

. PI = PT - SS
. PI = SS - PT
. PI = PT + SS
. PT = PI + SS
. SS = PI + PT

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PI = PT + SS


Explanation

Pelvic incidence is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the sum of pelvic tilt and sacral slope (PI = PT + SS). It dictates the required lumbar lordosis for a patient to achieve sagittal balance.

Question 236

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

In surgical planning for an adult patient with severe sagittal imbalance, the surgeon calculates the patient's pelvic incidence (PI) to be 55 degrees. To achieve optimal postoperative sagittal alignment and minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease, the target lumbar lordosis (LL) should be:

. 15 to 25 degrees
. 25 to 35 degrees
. 45 to 65 degrees
. 75 to 85 degrees
. Matched to the thoracic kyphosis exactly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 45 to 65 degrees


Explanation

For optimal sagittal balance, the lumbar lordosis (LL) should match the pelvic incidence (PI) within 10 degrees (PI - LL < 10 degrees). Therefore, a PI of 55 degrees requires an LL of approximately 45 to 65 degrees.

Question 237

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following compensatory mechanisms occurs FIRST in a patient developing progressive positive sagittal spinal imbalance?

. Knee flexion
. Hip flexion
. Pelvic retroversion
. Ankle plantarflexion
. Cervical kyphosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic retroversion


Explanation

The initial compensatory mechanism for positive sagittal imbalance is pelvic retroversion, which increases pelvic tilt (PT) and decreases sacral slope (SS). As the deformity worsens and pelvic compensation is exhausted, knee flexion and hip extension occur.

Question 238

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Which of the following radiographic parameters is considered a rigid, position-independent morphological feature of the pelvis that does NOT change with patient posture?

. Pelvic Tilt (PT)
. Sacral Slope (SS)
. Sagittal Vertical Axis (SVA)
. Pelvic Incidence (PI)
. T1 Pelvic Angle (T1PA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic Incidence (PI)


Explanation

Pelvic incidence (PI) is an anatomical parameter fixed at skeletal maturity and does not change with posture. Pelvic tilt, sacral slope, and SVA are dynamic parameters that alter with the patient's positional compensatory mechanisms.

Question 239

Topic: 6. Spine

During surgical correction of a fixed severe cervicothoracic kyphosis in a patient with Ankylosing Spondylitis, the primary goal is to optimize the patient's horizontal gaze. Which of the following targets for the Chin-Brow Vertical Angle (CBVA) is associated with the best functional outcome?

. -20 to -10 degrees
. -10 to 0 degrees
. 10 to 20 degrees
. 30 to 40 degrees
. 45 to 55 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 20 degrees


Explanation

The Chin-Brow Vertical Angle (CBVA) correlates with horizontal gaze and quality of life in ankylosing spondylitis. The optimal postoperative target is typically between 10 and 20 degrees of flexion to allow for safe ambulation and forward viewing.

Question 240

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old girl with Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis (AIS) presents for evaluation. In addition to coronal deformity, which of the following is the characteristic sagittal profile seen in the thoracic spine of patients with typical right thoracic AIS?

. Hyperkyphosis
. Hypokyphosis to lordosis
. Normal kyphosis (20-40 degrees)
. Focal structural kyphosis > 50 degrees
. Inverted C-curve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypokyphosis to lordosis


Explanation

Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis (AIS) is typically a lordoscoliosis, characterized by a relative hypokyphosis or true lordosis in the thoracic spine. This is primarily due to anterior spinal overgrowth relative to the posterior elements.