This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 541
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 62-year-old woman is planning to undergo reconstructive surgery for adult spinal deformity. Preoperative measurements show her pelvic incidence (PI) is 60 degrees. To achieve optimal sagittal balance postoperatively, what should her target lumbar lordosis (LL) ideally be?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 50 degrees
Explanation
To maintain appropriate sagittal balance and prevent flatback deformity, the postoperative lumbar lordosis should ideally be matched within 10 degrees of the patient's pelvic incidence (PI = LL +/- 10 degrees). Therefore, 50 degrees is the optimal target among the choices.
Question 542
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 28-year-old construction worker falls from a scaffolding, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. Upright radiographs show 20 degrees of local kyphosis, and CT shows 40% canal compromise. The posterior ligamentous complex is intact on MRI. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) and early mobilization
Explanation
This patient has a TLICS score of 2 (Morphology: burst = 2, PLC: intact = 0, Neurology: intact = 0). A total score of 3 or less typically indicates non-operative management, successfully treated with a TLSO or hyperextension brace.
Question 543
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Which of the following fixed spinopelvic radiographic parameters is most strongly associated with the severity and progression risk of an isthmic spondylolisthesis in a pediatric patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic tilt
Explanation
High pelvic incidence strongly correlates with the severity and progression risk of isthmic spondylolisthesis. It is a fixed morphological parameter defined as the sum of pelvic tilt and sacral slope.
Question 544
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old male gymnast presents with chronic low back pain and a waddling gait. Radiographs reveal a Grade III isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 with a slip angle of 55 degrees. Nonoperative management has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4-S1 posterior instrumented fusion
Explanation
High-grade (Grade III or IV) isthmic spondylolisthesis in an adolescent requires stabilization. An in situ L4-S1 posterior instrumented fusion is the most reliable treatment to halt progression and relieve symptoms.
Question 545
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 10-month-old infant presents with a left-sided thoracic curve measuring 30 degrees. The diagnosis of infantile idiopathic scoliosis is suspected. Which of the following radiographic parameters is most predictive of whether this curve will progress or spontaneously resolve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Apical vertebral rotation
Explanation
In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, Mehta's rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) is the most critical prognostic factor. An RVAD greater than 20 degrees is highly predictive of curve progression, whereas an RVAD less than 20 degrees typically indicates a resolving curve.
Question 546
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old gymnast presents with chronic low back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs show an L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis with 25% slip (Grade 1). She has failed 6 months of conservative management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
Explanation
For low-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis (Grade 1 or 2) that fails conservative care, a posterior/posterolateral fusion in situ without decompression is the gold standard. Pars repair is generally reserved for symptomatic spondylolysis without an active slip.
Question 547
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In the evaluation of typical adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS), which of the following is commonly observed regarding the sagittal profile of the thoracic spine?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hyperkyphosis
Explanation
Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis is a true three-dimensional deformity characterized by a loss of normal kyphosis (hypokyphosis or lordosis) in the sagittal plane at the apex of the thoracic curve. The presence of hyperkyphosis should raise suspicion for non-idiopathic causes like Scheuermann's disease.
Question 548
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
An 8-month-old boy is diagnosed with infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a left-sided thoracic curve measuring 25 degrees. The rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is 12 degrees. What is the most likely natural history of this curve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spontaneous resolution
Explanation
Infantile idiopathic scoliosis curves with a Mehta RVAD of less than 20 degrees have a highly favorable prognosis, with the majority undergoing spontaneous resolution. Curves with an RVAD > 20 degrees are likely to progress.
Question 549
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old female gymnast presents with progressive low back pain. Radiographs demonstrate a grade II isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. She has failed 6 months of conservative management (rest, bracing, physical therapy), and her pain significantly limits her activities of daily living. Neurologic examination is entirely normal. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5-S1 anterior lumbar interbody fusion
Explanation
For symptomatic low-grade (Meyerding Grade I or II) isthmic spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents that fails conservative management, the gold standard surgical treatment is a posterior in situ posterolateral fusion. Neurologic decompression is generally not required if there are no neurologic deficits. Reduction of low-grade slips does not significantly improve outcomes and increases the risk of L5 nerve root injury. Pars repair is typically reserved for select patients with early pars stress fractures or very low-grade slips without significant disc degeneration.
Question 550
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
When placing lumbar pedicle screws, accurate identification of the starting point is critical to avoid nerve root injury. The medial border of the lumbar pedicle correlates with which anatomic landmark on the posterior elements?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral border of the superior articular process
Explanation
The medial border of the lumbar pedicle corresponds roughly to the lateral edge of the superior articular process. The classic starting point for a lumbar pedicle screw is at the intersection of the pars, the midpoint of the transverse process, and the superior articular facet.
Question 551
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
To properly place a lumbar pedicle screw, the surgeon must identify the correct starting point to avoid neurological injury. Anatomically, the standard starting point is defined by the intersection of the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinous process, lamina, and inferior articular facet
Explanation
The standard starting point for a lumbar pedicle screw is the intersection of the pars interarticularis, the mid-transverse process, and the lateral border of the superior articular facet.
Question 552
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 13-year-old gymnast presents with chronic lower back pain. Radiographs reveal an isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 with 60% forward translation (Meyerding Grade III). She has failed 6 months of physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pars interarticularis repair (Buck's procedure)
Explanation
For high-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis (>50% slip, Grade III-V) in adolescents that is symptomatic or progressive, in situ posterior or posterolateral spinal fusion (typically extending from L4 to S1) is the standard treatment. Attempting complete reduction carries a high risk of L5 nerve root injury.
Question 553
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 5-year-old boy presents with a 40-degree left thoracic scoliosis. MRI reveals a syrinx extending from T4 to T10. Which of the following curve characteristics most strongly suggested the presence of an underlying neural axis abnormality?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Male gender
Explanation
Left thoracic curves, rapid progression, presentation at a young age, and associated neurologic findings are red flags in idiopathic scoliosis. A left thoracic curve warrants an MRI to rule out neuroaxial abnormalities like a syrinx or Chiari malformation.
Question 554
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old girl with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis has a major thoracic curve of 55 degrees. On the lateral radiograph, her thoracic kyphosis is measured at +15 degrees. According to the Lenke classification, what is her sagittal modifier?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Minus (-), because kyphosis is < 10 degrees
Explanation
The Lenke classification sagittal modifiers are based on the T5-T12 thoracic kyphosis: minus (-) is < +10 degrees, normal (N) is +10 to +40 degrees, and plus (+) is > +40 degrees.
Question 555
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with infantile idiopathic scoliosis with a 25-degree left thoracic curve. The rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta is measured at 25 degrees. What is the expected natural history of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spontaneous resolution without treatment
Explanation
In infantile idiopathic scoliosis, a rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) of Mehta > 20 degrees strongly predicts a progressive curve. These progressive curves often require early intervention with serial Mehta casting.
Question 556
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
An extensively porous-coated, cylindrically fully coated diaphyseal engaging stem is used in revision hip arthroplasty. To achieve predictable long-term biologic fixation (osseointegration), what is the minimum required distance of diaphyseal scratch fit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1-2 cm
Explanation
Extensively porous-coated cylindrical stems rely on initial mechanical stability in the diaphysis to allow for subsequent bone ingrowth. A rigid isthmic 'scratch fit' over a minimum distance of 4 to 6 cm is required to achieve this stability.
Question 557
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 24-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision while wearing only a lap belt. Radiographs and CT show a transverse fracture through the L1 spinous process, pedicles, and vertebral body. Which of the following associated injuries must be highly suspected and ruled out?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Diaphragmatic rupture
Explanation
Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries) have a high association (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal injuries. Hollow viscus injuries, particularly bowel perforations, must be actively suspected and ruled out.
Question 558
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In a 60-year-old patient with adult de novo degenerative lumbar scoliosis, which of the following radiographic findings is most predictive of rapid curve progression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cobb angle of 15 degrees
Explanation
Risk factors for rapid progression in adult degenerative scoliosis include a Cobb angle greater than 30 degrees, apical rotation of Grade II or III, and lateral listhesis greater than 6 mm at any level.
Question 559
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following combinations automatically meets the threshold (score >= 5) for operative intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Compression fracture, intact PLC, normal neurology
Explanation
A burst fracture (2 points) combined with an incomplete neurological deficit (3 points) yields a total TLICS score of 5. A score of 5 or greater favors operative management.
Question 560
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 68-year-old man presents with progressive stooped posture and low back pain. Radiographic analysis reveals a significant mismatch between pelvic incidence and lumbar lordosis. Which of the following compensatory mechanisms allows this patient to maintain horizontal gaze and an upright stance despite a positive sagittal vertical axis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip flexion and knee extension
Explanation
In the setting of positive sagittal imbalance, patients compensate by retroverting the pelvis, which increases Pelvic Tilt (PT). Additional compensatory mechanisms include decreasing thoracic kyphosis and flexing the knees and hips.
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