This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 501
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
When evaluating an adult patient for a long-segment spinal fusion for degenerative scoliosis, which of the following spino-pelvic parameters correlates most strongly with postoperative health-related quality of life (HRQOL)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sagittal vertical axis (SVA) less than 50 mm
Explanation
Sagittal vertical axis (SVA) is a primary driver of disability in adult spinal deformity; an SVA < 50 mm correlates closely with improved HRQOL. While PI-LL mismatch and PT are also important, SVA is the most widely validated global sagittal alignment predictor of outcomes.
Question 502
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 30-year-old woman sustains an L1 burst fracture after a fall. She is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates an intact posterior ligamentous complex. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is her total score and the recommended treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Score 2; nonoperative management
Explanation
The TLICS score assigns points for morphology (burst = 2), neurologic status (intact = 0), and posterior ligamentous complex integrity (intact = 0). A total score of 2 points strongly indicates nonoperative management (e.g., bracing) is recommended.
Question 503
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 65-year-old woman presents with worsening back pain and an inability to stand up straight. Radiographs show adult degenerative scoliosis. Her pelvic incidence (PI) is 55 degrees, pelvic tilt (PT) is 30 degrees, and sacral slope (SS) is 25 degrees. To achieve optimal sagittal balance postoperatively, her lumbar lordosis (LL) should be reconstructed to approximately:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 55 degrees
Explanation
For optimal sagittal balance, the lumbar lordosis (LL) should be matched to the pelvic incidence (PI) within 10 degrees (PI - LL < 10 degrees). Since her PI is 55 degrees, reconstructing LL to approximately 55 degrees perfectly matches the required spinopelvic parameters and minimizes the risk of adjacent segment failure.
Question 504
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In adult spinal deformity surgery, achieving optimal sagittal balance is critical to improving health-related quality of life outcomes. Which of the following sets of spinopelvic parameters represents the universally accepted SRS-Schwab postoperative target?
The SRS-Schwab criteria for optimal sagittal alignment in adult spinal deformity include an SVA less than 5 cm, a pelvic tilt less than 20 degrees, and a pelvic incidence minus lumbar lordosis (PI-LL) mismatch within 10 degrees. Achieving these targets correlates strongly with improved patient-reported outcomes.
Question 505
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
When planning corrective surgery for adult degenerative scoliosis, restoring optimal sagittal balance is highly correlated with improved clinical outcomes. To achieve this, the lumbar lordosis (LL) should be corrected to closely match which pelvic parameter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic incidence (PI)
Explanation
Optimal sagittal alignment in adult spinal deformity is achieved when the lumbar lordosis is restored to within 9-10 degrees of the patient's pelvic incidence (PI = LL +/- 10 degrees). Pelvic incidence is a fixed morphologic parameter that dictates the required amount of lumbar lordosis.
Question 506
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following findings is the strongest determinant indicating the need for operative stabilization of a thoracolumbar burst fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) disruption
Explanation
In the TLICS system, disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) assigns 3 points and is a primary determinant of biomechanical instability. Combined with a burst morphology (2 points), it results in a score greater than 4, strongly indicating operative management.
Question 507
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In evaluating a patient with adult spinal deformity and "flatback" syndrome (loss of lumbar lordosis), the body attempts to compensate to maintain an upright posture. Which radiographic finding represents a primary pelvic compensatory mechanism for positive sagittal malalignment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased pelvic tilt
Explanation
When a patient shifts into positive sagittal alignment due to a loss of lumbar lordosis, the primary pelvic compensatory mechanism is to retrovert the pelvis. This leads to a radiographically increased pelvic tilt (PT).
Question 508
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In a 68-year-old female presenting with adult degenerative scoliosis and severe sagittal imbalance, the goal of surgical reconstruction is to achieve a mismatch between Pelvic Incidence (PI) and Lumbar Lordosis (LL) of less than what value to optimize clinical outcomes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 degrees
Explanation
A PI-LL mismatch of less than 10 degrees is the widely accepted surgical target in adult spinal deformity correction. Achieving this restores physiological sagittal alignment, minimizes adjacent segment disease, and significantly improves health-related quality of life.
Question 509
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 65-year-old female presents with severe back pain and an inability to stand up straight. Which of the following radiographic parameters correlates most strongly with poor health-related quality of life (HRQOL) scores in adult spinal deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sagittal vertical axis (SVA)
Explanation
Sagittal vertical axis (SVA) is a critical measure of global sagittal balance. A positive SVA > 5 cm correlates most strongly with pain, disability, and poor HRQOL in adult spinal deformity patients.
Question 510
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 35-year-old male sustains a fall. CT shows a burst fracture of L1 with 40% canal compromise. He is neurologically intact, and MRI confirms the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is intact. What is his Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score and recommended management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. TLICS 2, nonoperative management
Explanation
The TLICS score is 2: morphology is burst (2 points), neurology is intact (0 points), and PLC is intact (0 points). A score of 3 or less is typically treated nonoperatively with a brace.
Question 511
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In preoperative planning for a 60-year-old patient with flatback syndrome and adult degenerative scoliosis, the surgeon aims to restore ideal sagittal balance. To achieve optimal postoperative alignment, the lumbar lordosis (LL) should be within how many degrees of the pelvic incidence (PI)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ± 10 degrees
Explanation
Based on the Schwab criteria for adult spinal deformity, optimal sagittal alignment is achieved when the patient's lumbar lordosis is restored to within 10 degrees of their pelvic incidence (PI - LL < 10 degrees).
Question 512
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 68-year-old woman with adult degenerative scoliosis presents with severe back pain and a forward stooped posture. Standing full-length radiographs reveal a sagittal vertical axis (SVA) of +12 cm. To achieve optimal sagittal balance postoperatively, surgical correction should aim for a relationship between Pelvic Incidence (PI) and Lumbar Lordosis (LL) of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PI - LL < 10 degrees
Explanation
In the surgical management of adult spinal deformity, achieving a Pelvic Incidence to Lumbar Lordosis (PI-LL) mismatch of less than 10 degrees is highly correlated with improved postoperative health-related quality of life. This alignment helps restore physiological sagittal balance and minimizes the sagittal vertical axis.
Question 513
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 30-year-old construction worker falls from a scaffolding, sustaining an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) system, what is his total score and the recommended management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Score 2; Nonoperative management
Explanation
The TLICS system assigns points for morphology (burst = 2), neurological status (intact = 0), and PLC integrity (intact = 0). A total score of 2 strongly suggests nonoperative management, whereas scores of 5 or greater warrant surgical intervention.
Question 514
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 35-year-old construction worker falls from a height and presents with paraplegia at the T10 level.
Imaging demonstrates a T10 flexion-distraction injury with posterior ligamentous complex disruption. What associated injury must be urgently ruled out?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hollow viscus injury
Explanation
Flexion-distraction injuries (Chance fractures) are highly associated with intra-abdominal pathology, particularly hollow viscus injuries, in up to 50% of cases. A high index of suspicion and appropriate abdominal imaging or surgical consultation are critical.
Question 515
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 65-year-old woman presents with severe back pain, forward-leaning posture, and difficulty standing upright. Radiographs reveal adult spinal deformity. Her pelvic incidence (PI) is 60 degrees. To achieve a harmonious sagittal alignment postoperatively, what is the ideal target for her lumbar lordosis (LL)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. LL should be within 10 degrees of her Pelvic Incidence (PI)
Explanation
For optimal sagittal balance in adult spinal deformity, the lumbar lordosis (LL) should be within 10 degrees of the pelvic incidence (PI). A PI-LL mismatch > 10 degrees is associated with poor health-related quality of life outcomes and adjacent segment disease.
Question 516
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 16-year-old boy presents with back pain and a prominent thoracic kyphosis. Radiographs reveal a thoracic kyphosis of 65 degrees. Which of the following radiographic criteria is required to confirm the diagnosis of Scheuermann's disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. At least 3 adjacent vertebrae with 5 degrees of anterior wedging
Explanation
Sorensen's criteria for classic Scheuermann's kyphosis require the presence of at least 3 adjacent vertebrae, each with a minimum of 5 degrees of anterior wedging. Additional findings often include Schmorl's nodes and irregular endplates.
Question 517
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old gymnast presents with chronic lower back pain. Radiographs reveal a Grade II isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. She has failed 6 months of bracing and physical therapy. If surgery is performed, what is the most appropriate procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L5-S1 posterolateral fusion with or without interbody
Explanation
For a symptomatic Grade II isthmic spondylolisthesis in an adolescent failing conservative care, an in-situ L5-S1 fusion is the standard surgical treatment. Direct pars repair is generally reserved for higher level defects (L1-L4) or L5 defects without significant slip (Grade 0-I).
Question 518
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 45-year-old man falls from a height and sustains an L1 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates that the integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is indeterminate. Based on the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the most appropriate management approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The score is 4, so surgical or nonoperative management are both acceptable
Explanation
The TLICS score assigns 2 points for a burst fracture morphology, 0 points for intact neurology, and 2 points for an indeterminate PLC, totaling 4 points. A total score of 4 suggests that either surgical or nonoperative management is appropriate based on surgeon and patient preference.
Question 519
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 65-year-old woman presents with neurogenic claudication and a grade 1 degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-L5. Which of the following anatomic features is most strongly implicated in the pathogenesis of her spondylolisthesis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sagittal orientation of the facet joints
Explanation
Degenerative spondylolisthesis most commonly occurs at L4-L5. A more sagittal orientation of the facet joints renders them less capable of resisting shear forces, allowing anterior translation as the intervertebral disc degenerates.
Question 520
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In the assessment of adult spinal deformity, which of the following spinopelvic parameters is considered a fixed morphological characteristic of the pelvis that remains constant regardless of patient positioning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic Incidence (PI)
Explanation
Pelvic incidence (PI) is a constant anatomical parameter unique to each individual and does not change with posture. It dictates the relationship between pelvic tilt and sacral slope, represented by the formula PI = PT + SS.
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