Question 321
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & DeformityCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Isthmic spondylolysis
Practice Set 17 of 49
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Isthmic spondylolysis
. have protective sensation.
A 7-year-old boy has had low back pain for the past 3 weeks. Radiographs reveal apparent disk space narrowing at L4-5. The patient is afebrile. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 9,000/mmP3P and a C-reactive protein level of 10 mg/L. A lumbar MRI scan confirms the loss of disk height at L4-5 and reveals a small perivertebral abscess at that level. To achieve the most rapid improvement and to lessen the chances of recurrence, management should consist of Review Topic
. IV antibiotics.
. cast immobilization in hyperextension for 6 weeks, followed by a thoracolumbosacral orthosis.
. preexisting to her accident, exists in 5% of the population, has a familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.
. Normal function
. back muscle stretching and reduced weight in the backpack.
. return to work.
Figures 28a and 28b show the posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 38-year-old woman with adult idiopathic scoliosis. She reports symptoms of long-standing lower back pain, progressive loss of height, and the inability to stand upright at the end of the day. What radiographic finding has been found to most closely correlate with symptoms of lower back pain? Review Topic

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
. periodic observation, but no activity restriction.
. Circumferential fusion
. a rigid collar for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by mobilization.
An adult patient with a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 is most likely to have weakness of the Review Topic
. flexor hallucis longus.
. Isthmic
A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of persistent lower back pain that worsens with lumbar extension. Oblique radiographs of the lumbar spine demonstrate a 'Scottie dog with a collar' sign. The primary pathology is a stress fracture or defect of which of the following bony structures?
. Pedicle
A 68-year-old female presents with severe 'flatback' syndrome and forward truncal inclination following prior long-segment lumbar fusion. She has exhausted nonoperative management. In evaluating her spinopelvic parameters to plan a corrective osteotomy, you note that she has a high Pelvic Incidence (PI). Which of the following best describes the expected compensatory changes in her Pelvic Tilt (PT) and Sacral Slope (SS) as her body attempts to maintain global sagittal balance?
. Decreased PT and decreased SS
. Score of 4; Operative or Nonoperative treatment
. L5
A 35-year-old man falls from a 10-foot ladder and sustains a thoracolumbar injury. He is neurologically intact. CT demonstrates an L1 burst fracture with 40% loss of anterior body height and 20% canal compromise. MRI confirms that the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is fully intact. Based on the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), what is his total score and the recommended management?
. TLICS 2, non-operative management
. L5