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Question 321

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 19-year-old man has had back pain with activity, especially running in soccer and baseball, for the past 4 months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals no motor weakness or sensory changes in the lower extremities. Range of motion shows increased pain with extension and mild limitation with flexion. A sitting straight leg raising test is limited at approximately 60 degrees bilaterally by back and buttocks pain. Plain radiographs are normal. MRI scans are shown in Figures 13a through 13e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Isthmic spondylolysis
. Herniated nucleus pulposus at L5-S1
. Lumbar sprain
. Limbus fracture
. Aseptic diskitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isthmic spondylolysis


Explanation

The patient has an isthmic spondylolysis. The plain radiographs are normal, but the MRI scans show increased marrow edema and signal at the L5 pars interarticularis. Findings of bilateral hamstring tightness and increased pain with extension over flexion suggest spondylolysis. The MRI scans do not show any signs of the other conditions.

Question 322

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Figure 6 shows the clinical photographs of a newborn who underwent a colostomy for an imperforate anus. Examination shows extended knees, flexed hips, and equinovarus feet. Dimpling is noted over the buttocks. Patients with these findings differ from patients with myelodysplasia in that they
. have intact motor function.
. have protective sensation.
. are at risk for progressive neural deterioration.
. are at risk for development of a latex allergy.
. are at risk for development of severe lordosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. have protective sensation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has sacral agenesis. Clinical signs include the classic dimpling over the buttocks and the characteristic lower extremity deformities. Imperforate anus is often associated with this disorder. Although motor function correlates with the level of vertebral defect, sensation is usually intact. This is important therapeutically, because patients are not as prone to pressure sores as are those with myelodysplasia. Kyphosis may develop in many patients with lumbosacral agenesis, but lordosis is unusual. Latex allergy and progressive neural deterioration may occur in patients with either myelodysplasia or sacral agenesis but is more common in the former. REFERENCE: Renshaw TS: Sacral agenesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1978;60:373-383.

Question 323

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 7-year-old boy has had low back pain for the past 3 weeks. Radiographs reveal apparent disk space narrowing at L4-5. The patient is afebrile. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 9,000/mmP3P and a C-reactive protein level of 10 mg/L. A lumbar MRI scan confirms the loss of disk height at L4-5 and reveals a small perivertebral abscess at that level. To achieve the most rapid improvement and to lessen the chances of recurrence, management should consist of Review Topic

. oral antibiotics.
. IV antibiotics.
. surgical drainage of the perivertebral abscess and IV antibiotics.
. bed rest.
. cast immobilization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. IV antibiotics.


Explanation

The patient has diskitis. Administration of IV antibiotics speeds resolution and minimizes recurrence. Bed rest and cast immobilization have been successfully used to treat this disorder but can be associated with prolonged recovery and frequent recurrence, even when oral antibiotics are administered. A perivertebral abscess seen in association with this condition usually resolves without surgery.(SBQ12SP.92) A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is complaining of back pain and imaging shows the findings in Figure A. On neurological examination, he does not have any deficits. MRI shows approximately 25% canal encroachment and no evidence of injury to the posterior ligamentous complex. Which of the following is the most appropriate course in management?Review TopicStrict bedrest for six weeks then progressive weightbearingAmbulation as tolerated with or without a TLSOSurgical decompression and anterior stabilizationSurgical decompression and posterior stabilizationSurgical decompression and combined anterior/posterior stabilizationThe patient has a L1 burst fracture with minimal retropulsion of bony fragments in the spinal canal. In the absence of neurological deficits and injury to the PLC, the most appropriate treatment is ambulation as tolerated with or without a thoracolumbrosacral orthosis (TLSO).Thoracolumbar burst fractures are typically caused by an axial load with flexion and commonly found in this location due to increased motion at these segments. With an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) and no neural compromise, TLSO is the mainstay of treatment. If there is evidence of neurological deficit and/or PLC injury, decompression and fusion are indicated. The degree of acceptable kyphosis is controversial. The choice of anterior versus posterior approach is based on ease of decompression.Vaccaro et al. introduced a new classification system for thoracolumbar injuries, TLICS, based on morphological appearance, integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex, and neurological status. They advocate use of the system for nonoperative versus operative decision making and communication between surgeons.Bailey et al. completed a randomized, nonblinded controlled trial to determine theefficacy of bracing for AO type A0-A3 thoracolumbar burst fractures. Both groups were encouraged to ambulate as tolerated and the no brace group had bending restrictions for 8 weeks. They found no difference in the Roland Morris Disability Questionnaire (RMDQ) score at 3 months after injury.Figure A is sagittal CT scan of the lumbar spine showing a burst fracture of L1 with minimal retropulsion. Illustration A is the TLICS classification with score of 4 being the branch point for nonoperative versus operative management.Incorrect Answers:

Question 324

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 16-year-old boy has abdominal and back pain after being involved in a high-velocity head-on motor vehicle accident. He was restrained in the rear of the automobile by a lap belt only. A radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figure 47. The patient has no other injuries. Optimal management should include
. bed rest for 6 weeks.
. open reduction and internal fixation with spinous process wiring.
. cast immobilization in hyperextension for 6 weeks, followed by a thoracolumbosacral orthosis.
. anterior corpectomy, tricortical autograft, and fixation with a plate and screws.
. posterior fixation with a pedicle screw construct.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. cast immobilization in hyperextension for 6 weeks, followed by a thoracolumbosacral orthosis.


Explanation

Pediatric bony Chance fractures occur following severe flexion injuries as seen after motor vehicle accidents with lap belt restraints. In the absence of associated injuries, these fractures are best treated with immobilization.

Question 325

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 19-year-old woman reports lower back pain following a motor vehicle accident. Radiographs obtained immediately after the accident and a bone scan obtained 4 weeks later are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. The patient asks questions regarding the cause, genetics, and natural history of her condition. She should be informed that the condition was
. caused by the accident, exists in 5% of the population, has no familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.
. caused by the accident, exists in 12% of the population, has no familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.
. preexisting to her accident, exists in 3% of the population, has no familial predisposition, and should be monitored for progression yearly until age 25 years.
. preexisting to her accident, exists in 5% of the population, has a familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.
. preexisting to her accident, exists in 12% of the population, has a familial predisposition, and is likely to progress throughout adulthood.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. preexisting to her accident, exists in 5% of the population, has a familial predisposition, and is unlikely to progress.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show L5 spondylolysis without spondylolisthesis (slip). The bone scan is normal, indicating that the pars interarticularis fractures are not acute. The incidence of spondylolysis is approximately 5% in the general population. The lesion generally develops in children age 5 to 6 years, and there is a second peak in the adolescent population. There is a familial predisposition, with reported rates of 27% to 69% in close relatives. A recent long-term follow-up study found that 90% of the spondylolisthesis had occurred before the patient’s first visit to the physician. Spondylolisthesis tends to progress during the initial growth spurt and is similar in some respects to idiopathic scoliosis. Progression of a lytic spondylolysis to spondylolisthesis in adulthood has been reported; however, this is exceedingly rare. REFERENCES: Lauerman WC, Cain JE: Isthmic spondylolisthesis in the adult. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:201-208. Hensinger RN: Spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:1098-1107. Seitsalo S, Osterman K, Hyvarinen H, Tallroth K, Schlenzka D, Poussa M: Progression of spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents: A long-term follow-up of 272 patients. Spine 1991;16:417-421. Fredrickson BE, Baker D, McHolik WJ, Yuan HA, Lubicky JP: The natural history of spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:699-707.

Question 326

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 27-year-old man has neck pain after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. A lateral cervical radiograph is shown in Figure 21. What would be the most common neurologic finding?
. Cruciate paralysis
. Quadriplegia
. Normal function
. Absent bulbocavernosus reflex
. Greater occipital nerve dysesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normal function


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographic findings are consistent with a type II Hangman’s fracture or traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2. This occurs with more than 3 mm of displacement according to the classification of Levine and Edwards. Even though the radiograph reveals significant displacement, the overall space available for the neural elements is increased, therefore minimizing the risk of neural compromise. Neurologic injury is most frequently encountered in type III injuries that are associated with bilateral facet dislocations of C2 on C3 but is infrequent in type I (less than 3 mm displacement) and type II traumatic spondylolisthesis. When neurologic deficits are associated with type II injuries, it is usually the result of an associated head injury. Cruciate paralysis occurs as a result of the crossover of the motor and sensory tracts at different levels of the cord at the C1-C2 junction. This results in normal sensation but complete loss of motor function.

Question 327

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 12-year-old girl who is Risser stage 3 has had intermittent mild midback pain for the past 4 weeks. The pain is worse after prolonged sitting and after carrying a heavy backpack at school. She occasionally takes acetaminophen, but the pain does not limit sport activities. Examination reveals a mild right rib prominence during forward bending. Neurologic examination is normal. Radiographs show a 20-degree right thoracic scoliosis with no congenital anomalies or lytic lesions. Management should consist of:
. back muscle stretching and reduced weight in the backpack.
. consultation with a pain management specialist.
. MRI of the thoracic spine.
. a technetium Tc 99m bone scan.
. a thoracolumbosacral orthosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. back muscle stretching and reduced weight in the backpack.


Explanation

Mild scoliosis is not a painful condition, but it usually presents during adolescence. Intermittent back pain is reported by 25% to 30% of adolescents whether or not scoliosis is present. Such pain is often attributed to muscle strain from tight muscles, poor posture, or heavy school backpacks. The clinician must distinguish typical pain (mild, intermittent, nonlimiting) from atypical pain. The latter requires more careful examination and imaging studies (bone scan or MRI) to determine the source of pain. The patient’s age and right thoracic curve pattern are typical for idiopathic scoliosis; therefore, imaging of the neuroaxis is not necessary to look for cord syrinx, tethering, or tumor. Brace treatment is not required for this small curve unless future progression is demonstrated.

Question 328

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
When comparing the overall outcomes of surgical versus nonsurgical treatment of stable thoracolumbar burst fractures in patients without neurologic injury, 5 years following injury, the principle differences lie in:
. fracture kyphosis.
. reduction of retropulsed bone.
. pain reduction.
. incidence of complications.
. return to work.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. return to work.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: When patients are compared at 5 years follow-up, there are no statistically significant differences between the two groups with respect to kyphosis, the degree of retropulsed bone resorption, pain and function levels, or the ability to return to work. Nonsurgical management of stable neurologically intact burst fractures has a very low incidence of complications. REFERENCES: Wood K, Butterman G, Mehbod A, et al: Operative compared with nonoperative treatment of a thoracolumbar burst fracture without neurological deficit: A prospective, randomized study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:773-781. Shen WJ, Liu TJ, Shen YS: Nonoperative treatment versus posterior fixation for thoracolumbar junction burst fractures without neurologic deficit. Spine 2001;26:1038-1045.

Question 329

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Figures 28a and 28b show the posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 38-year-old woman with adult idiopathic scoliosis. She reports symptoms of long-standing lower back pain, progressive loss of height, and the inability to stand upright at the end of the day. What radiographic finding has been found to most closely correlate with symptoms of lower back pain? Review Topic

. Thoracic scoliosis
. Thoracic hypokyphosis
. Lumbar disk degeneration
. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
. Lumbar hyperlordosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis


Explanation

Adult idiopathic scoliosis and adult "de-novo" scoliosis can present with a number of symptoms that relate to associated degenerative findings such as stenosis or spondylolisthesis. In the absence of these associated conditions, increased levels of pain in patients with scoliosis has been found to most closely correlate with sagittal imbalance. Thoracolumbar and lumbar curves and thoracolumbar kyphosis have both been found to closely correlate with increased symptoms and lower health-related quality of life (HRQL) outcome scores. Thoracic scoliosis, thoracic hypokyphosis, lumbar hyperlordosis, and lumbar disk degeneration have not been found to correlate with increased symptoms.

Question 330

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Figure 3 shows the radiograph of an asymptomatic 10-year-old boy. Management should consist of
. physical therapy.
. restriction from contact sports.
. periodic observation, but no activity restriction.
. immobilization with a thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO).
. direct surgical repair.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. periodic observation, but no activity restriction.


Explanation

Discussion: Asymptomatic spondylolysis in a child or adolescent should be observed for the possible development of spondylolisthesis, but no other active intervention is needed. The initial treatment of choice for symptomatic spondylolysis includes rest and activity modifications, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, bracing, and casting. Immobilization with a TLSO or pantaloon spica cast may permit healing of an acute pars fracture. Rarely, surgical treatment may be necessary. Surgical options include posterolateral L5-S1 fusion or direct repair of the pars defect.

Question 331

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 40-year-old man has intractable pain following 2 years of nonsurgical management for high-grade spondylolisthesis. What is the best surgical option?
. Posterolateral fusion
. Posterolateral fusion with instrumentation
. Circumferential fusion
. Transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Circumferential fusion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Circumferential fusion is the preferred choice for patients undergoing revision surgery following failed posterolateral fusions for isthmic spondylolisthesis as well as for those patients having primary surgery for high-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis.

Question 332

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 21-year-old woman sustained a minimally displaced traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 (Hangman’s fracture) after striking the windshield with her forehead during a motor vehicle accident. Management should consist of
. skeletal tong traction for 6 weeks.
. anterior C2-3 diskectomy, grafting, and plate fixation.
. halo application for 8 weeks.
. a rigid collar for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by mobilization.
. posterior stabilization with C2 pedicle screws.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a rigid collar for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by mobilization.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: According to the classification of Levine and Edwards, a type I Hangman’s fracture is minimally displaced without angulation and represents a stable injury. Good clinical success has been achieved with nonsurgical management consisting of use of a rigid collar until the patient reports pain relief, followed by quick mobilization. REFERENCE: Levine AM, Edwards CC: The management of traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:217-226.

Question 333

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

An adult patient with a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 is most likely to have weakness of the Review Topic

. flexor hallucis longus.
. quadriceps.
. gastrocsoleus.
. extensor hallucis longus.
. iliopsoas.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. flexor hallucis longus.


Explanation

Adult patients with isthmic spondylolisthesis most commonly have neurologic symptoms due to foraminal stenosis at the level of the spondylolisthesis. In this scenario, the patient is most likely to have weakness of the L5 myotome, which would cause weakness of the extensor hallucis longus.

Question 334

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Figures 63a and 63b show the radiographs of a 38-year-old man who reports low back and bilateral lower extremity pain. The spondylolisthesis is best classified as which of the following?
. Pathologic
. Isthmic
. Acquired
. Degenerative
. Dysplastic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isthmic


Explanation

Spondylolisthesis can be classified into five types. Type I, dysplastic, occurs at the lumbosacral junction as a result of congenital abnormalities of the upper sacrum and/or the arch of L5. Type II, isthmic, refers to those involving a lesion in the pars interarticularis. Type IIA, lytic, represents fatigue fractures of the pars. Type IIB describes those with elongated, but intact pars. Type IIC describes those that are a result of an acute fracture of the pars. Type III, degenerative spondylolisthesis, results from long-standing intersegmental disease. Type IV, traumatic, refers to those resulting from fractures in regions other than the pars, such as the pedicles. Type V, pathologic, refers to spondylolisthesis resulting from generalized or local bone disease. The radiographs demonstrate type II, isthmic spondylolisthesis.

Question 335

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of persistent lower back pain that worsens with lumbar extension. Oblique radiographs of the lumbar spine demonstrate a 'Scottie dog with a collar' sign. The primary pathology is a stress fracture or defect of which of the following bony structures?

. Pedicle
. Pars interarticularis
. Spinous process
. Transverse process
. Superior articular facet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pedicle


Explanation

The 'Scottie dog with a collar' sign on an oblique lumbar radiograph represents a radiolucent defect in the pars interarticularis, indicating spondylolysis. This injury is a stress fracture resulting from repetitive hyperextension, commonly seen in young athletes like gymnasts and football linemen.

Question 336

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 68-year-old female presents with severe 'flatback' syndrome and forward truncal inclination following prior long-segment lumbar fusion. She has exhausted nonoperative management. In evaluating her spinopelvic parameters to plan a corrective osteotomy, you note that she has a high Pelvic Incidence (PI). Which of the following best describes the expected compensatory changes in her Pelvic Tilt (PT) and Sacral Slope (SS) as her body attempts to maintain global sagittal balance?

. Decreased PT and decreased SS
. Decreased PT and increased SS
. Increased PT and increased SS
. Increased PT and decreased SS
. No change in PT or SS as PI is a fixed parameter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased PT and decreased SS


Explanation

Pelvic Incidence (PI) is a fixed morphological parameter representing the relationship between the sacrum and the femoral heads, defined by the equation PI = PT + SS. In conditions like flatback syndrome where there is a loss of lumbar lordosis, the patient shifts their center of gravity anteriorly. To compensate and bring the center of gravity back over the pelvis, the patient retroverts the pelvis. Pelvic retroversion corresponds to an increase in Pelvic Tilt (PT). Because PI is a constant, an increase in PT mathematically and anatomically mandates a decrease in Sacral Slope (SS).

Question 337

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 40-year-old male construction worker falls 15 feet and complains of severe back pain. Neurologic examination of the lower extremities is completely intact (ASIA E). A CT scan demonstrates a T12 burst fracture with 40% loss of anterior height and retropulsion into the canal. MRI reveals high T2 signal in the interspinous ligaments but an intact ligamentum flavum, representing an 'indeterminate' posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) injury. Utilizing the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is the patient's calculated score and the corresponding treatment recommendation?
. Score of 2; Nonoperative treatment
. Score of 3; Nonoperative treatment
. Score of 4; Operative or Nonoperative treatment
. Score of 5; Operative treatment
. Score of 7; Operative treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score of 4; Operative or Nonoperative treatment


Explanation

The Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score determines treatment based on three categories: 1) Morphology: Burst fracture = 2 points. 2) Neurologic status: Intact = 0 points. 3) PLC integrity: Indeterminate (suspected) = 2 points. Total score = 2 + 0 + 2 = 4 points. According to TLICS, a score of ≤ 3 suggests nonoperative management, a score of ≥ 5 suggests operative management, and a score of exactly 4 is an equivocal indication where either operative or nonoperative management may be chosen based on surgeon preference and patient factors.

Question 338

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 16-year-old male gymnast presents with chronic low back pain and radicular symptoms radiating down his left leg. Lateral radiographs demonstrate a L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis with a 65% slip (Meyerding Grade III). Which nerve root is most commonly compressed in this specific condition?
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5


Explanation

In L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, the pars interarticularis defect leads to anterior translation of L5 on S1. The fibrocartilaginous tissue at the pars defect (Gill nodule) and the slipping of the L5 vertebra cause compression of the exiting L5 nerve root within the neural foramen. This is in contrast to degenerative spondylolisthesis, where the traversing root is typically compressed in the lateral recess.

Question 339

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old man falls from a 10-foot ladder and sustains a thoracolumbar injury. He is neurologically intact. CT demonstrates an L1 burst fracture with 40% loss of anterior body height and 20% canal compromise. MRI confirms that the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is fully intact. Based on the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), what is his total score and the recommended management?

. TLICS 2, non-operative management
. TLICS 4, operative management
. TLICS 5, operative management
. TLICS 2, operative management
. TLICS 4, non-operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TLICS 2, non-operative management


Explanation

The TLICS scoring system dictates treatment based on morphology, neurologic status, and PLC integrity. Morphology: Burst fracture = 2 points. Neurologic status: Intact = 0 points. PLC: Intact = 0 points. Total score = 2. A score of 3 or less indicates non-operative management. A score of 4 is the watershed (operative vs. non-operative), and 5 or more indicates operative intervention.

Question 340

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old gymnast presents with progressive lower back pain and a noticeable 'step-off' on her lower spine. Imaging confirms a Grade III L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. During surgical intervention involving reduction of the slip and L5-S1 instrumented fusion, the patient is at highest risk for injury to which of the following nerve roots?
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5


Explanation

Reduction of high-grade L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis carries a significant risk of iatrogenic L5 nerve root injury. This occurs due to stretching of the L5 nerve root as the L5 vertebral body is pulled posteriorly and superiorly during the reduction maneuver. The L5 nerve is tethered by the lumbosacral ligament and can be stretched over the sacral ala. S1 nerve root injury is less common during the actual reduction maneuver.