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Question 121

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. He is neurologically intact. Which of the following treatments is associated with the lowest morbidity and mortality in this specific patient demographic?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
. Observation without any orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients (typically over 80 years) with Type II odontoid fractures, rigid cervical collar immobilization is often preferred despite a high rate of nonunion. Halo vest immobilization in this age group is associated with high morbidity and a mortality rate approaching 40%. Nonunion in a collar is often a stable, asymptomatic fibrous nonunion, making it a safe alternative to high-risk surgical procedures or halo placement.

Question 122

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old male presents with a Type II odontoid fracture displaced 6 mm posteriorly following a low-energy fall. He is neurologically intact. In this specific elderly population, which of the following immobilization methods is associated with the highest rate of morbidity and mortality?

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
. Halo vest immobilization
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Minerva cast application

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization


Explanation

In the elderly population (generally considered >75-80 years old), halo vest immobilization is poorly tolerated and is associated with exceptionally high rates of morbidity and mortality (respiratory compromise, pin site infections, cardiac events, and death). Standard of care for Type II odontoid fractures in elderly poor surgical candidates is typically a rigid cervical collar (accepting a stable fibrous nonunion), or posterior C1-C2 fusion if they are medically fit to undergo surgery.

Question 123

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 60-year-old woman with a 20-year history of severe rheumatoid arthritis presents with neck pain and progressive clumsiness in her hands. Which of the following radiographic parameters is the most reliable predictor of impending neurologic compromise and paralysis?

. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) > 3 mm
. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) > 5 mm
. Space available for the cord (SAC) < 14 mm
. Subaxial subluxation > 2 mm
. C2-C7 sagittal vertical axis > 4 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) > 3 mm


Explanation

While an ADI > 9mm indicates instability, the space available for the cord (SAC), also known as the posterior atlanto-dental interval (PADI), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic recovery and paralysis. A SAC < 14mm is a critical threshold.

Question 124

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 28-year-old man falls from a height and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture. The fracture line slopes from anterior-inferior to posterior-superior. Intact transverse ligament is noted on MRI. Which of the following makes this patient a poor candidate for an anterior odontoid screw?

. Age less than 30 years
. Intact transverse ligament
. Reverse obliquity fracture pattern
. Displacement less than 2 mm
. Absence of neurologic deficit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age less than 30 years


Explanation

An anterior-inferior to posterior-superior fracture line is a 'reverse obliquity' pattern. Placing an anterior lag screw in this pattern will cause the fracture to shear and displace rather than compress, making it a contraindication.

Question 125

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 40-year-old woman undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) for C5-C6 spondylosis. Postoperatively, she is noted to have a new-onset unilateral vocal cord paralysis and a hoarse voice. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve is suspected. Which surgical approach and anatomical relationship most likely contributed to this injury?

. Left-sided approach, where the nerve loops under the aortic arch
. Left-sided approach, where the nerve is more superficial and variable
. Right-sided approach, where the nerve loops under the subclavian artery
. Right-sided approach, where the nerve traverses the carotid sheath
. Midline approach, where the nerve crosses anterior to the trachea

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Left-sided approach, where the nerve loops under the aortic arch


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and has a more variable, oblique course in the neck compared to the left (which loops under the aortic arch and ascends vertically in the tracheoesophageal groove). This makes the right-sided approach theoretically higher risk for RLN injury.

Question 126

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old man sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. He is neurologically intact. Radiographs show a 3 mm posterior displacement. He has severe medical comorbidities (ASA IV). What is the most appropriate management?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Hard cervical collar immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Cervical traction followed by open reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients with severe comorbidities (ASA IV) and Type II odontoid fractures, rigid cervical collar immobilization is generally preferred over a Halo vest (due to high morbidity/mortality) or surgery. While nonunion rates are high, the resulting fibrous nonunions are typically stable and well-tolerated.

Question 127

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old male with severe COPD, coronary artery disease, and prior myocardial infarction falls and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement. He is neurologically intact. A representative image is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to minimize mortality while managing this fracture?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Rigid cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients (typically >80 years) with significant medical comorbidities, rigid cervical collar immobilization is the safest approach for isolated, minimally displaced Type II odontoid fractures. Halo vest immobilization in this age group is associated with high morbidity and mortality (up to 40%) due to respiratory complications and pin site issues. While surgical fusion provides better union rates, the perioperative risks are prohibitive in severely medically compromised elderly patients. Fibrous nonunion in this population is frequently asymptomatic and clinically stable.

Question 128

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 30-year-old male sustains a C1 burst (Jefferson) fracture. An open-mouth odontoid radiograph demonstrates lateral displacement of the C1 lateral masses. According to the Rule of Spence, what total combined overhang of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 articular facets suggests a rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament (TAL)?

. > 3.0 mm
. > 5.0 mm
. > 6.9 mm
. > 9.0 mm
. > 11.5 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 3.0 mm


Explanation

The Rule of Spence dictates that on an open-mouth odontoid view, if the total combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on the C2 superior articular facets is greater than 6.9 mm, it strongly suggests incompetence or rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament (TAL), indicating instability. In the MRI era, TAL integrity is usually confirmed directly with high-resolution MRI.

Question 129

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a ground-level fall. Imaging reveals a displaced Anderson D'Alonzo Type II odontoid fracture. His medical history is significant for severe COPD on home oxygen and congestive heart failure. He is neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion using the Harms technique

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization


Explanation

In the elderly population with severe medical comorbidities, the treatment of Type II odontoid fractures is challenging. Halo vest immobilization is generally contraindicated in this demographic due to unacceptably high rates of morbidity and mortality (e.g., pneumonia, pin site infections). While surgical fixation provides higher union rates, patients with severe cardiorespiratory disease are often poor surgical candidates. Immobilization in a rigid cervical collar is the treatment of choice in such cases; although the nonunion rate is high, the nonunions are typically stable and asymptomatic fibrous unions.

Question 130

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 84-year-old male with multiple medical comorbidities sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. He is neurologically intact. Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy with the lowest risk of severe complications or mortality?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Rigid cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Minerva cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

In the elderly population, halo vest immobilization is associated with unacceptably high morbidity and mortality. A rigid cervical collar is the preferred nonoperative treatment, prioritizing survival over bony union, as nonunion is frequently asymptomatic or well-tolerated.

Question 131

Topic: Cervical Spine

Biomechanical studies evaluating the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis have determined the relative contributions of its ligamentous components. Which of the following anatomical structures provides the greatest resistance to lateral displacement of the fibula?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Interosseous ligament
. Inferior transverse ligament
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)


Explanation

The posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) is the strongest component of the syndesmotic complex and provides the greatest resistance (approximately 42%) to lateral displacement of the fibula. This is followed by the AITFL (35%) and the interosseous ligament (22%).

Question 132

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old male presents with severe neck pain following a fall. CT demonstrates a Type II odontoid fracture with 4 mm of posterior displacement. He is neurologically intact and lives independently. What is the most significant advantage of posterior C1-C2 segmental instrumentation compared to halo-vest immobilization in this patient?

. Lower initial perioperative morbidity
. Decreased risk of long-term dysphagia
. Higher rate of fracture union and lower long-term mortality
. Preservation of normal atlantoaxial rotation
. Shorter overall hospital length of stay

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Higher rate of fracture union and lower long-term mortality


Explanation

In elderly patients with Type II odontoid fractures, halo-vest immobilization is associated with high respiratory morbidity and high mortality. Surgical stabilization (e.g., C1-C2 posterior fusion) significantly improves union rates and decreases long-term mortality despite higher initial surgical risks.

Question 133

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old man sustains a C1 ring fracture after diving into a shallow pool. An open-mouth odontoid radiograph is obtained. According to the Rule of Spence, a sum of lateral mass displacement greater than 6.9 mm strongly implies an incompetent or ruptured injury to which of the following structures?

. Alar ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Apical ligament
. Tectorial membrane
. Posterior atlantooccipital membrane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse ligament


Explanation

A combined lateral mass overhang of more than 6.9 mm on an open-mouth view implies a rupture of the transverse ligament. This marks the fracture as an unstable injury pattern often requiring halo immobilization or surgical fusion.

Question 134

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old male sustains a Type IIA odontoid fracture (transverse fracture comminuted at the base) following a high-speed collision. Which of the following conditions represents an absolute contraindication to anterior odontoid screw fixation?

. Concomitant anterior arch fracture of C1
. Displacement of the odontoid greater than 2 mm
. Associated rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament
. Concomitant fracture of the C2 spinous process
. Fracture gap less than 1 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Associated rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament


Explanation

Anterior odontoid screw fixation requires an intact transverse atlantal ligament to maintain C1-C2 stability after the dens is fixed. If the transverse ligament is ruptured, the C1 ring can still translate anteriorly on C2 even if the odontoid fracture heals, leading to persistent atlantoaxial instability. Therefore, an associated transverse ligament rupture is an absolute contraindication to anterior screw fixation; a posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion is required.

Question 135

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 85-year-old female presents with a Type II odontoid fracture displaced 3 mm posteriorly after a ground-level fall. She has significant medical comorbidities. She is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion
. Rigid cervical collar immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients (especially those >80 years old) with Type II odontoid fractures, halo vest immobilization is associated with high morbidity and mortality (up to 40%). Surgical intervention carries significant perioperative risks. Current evidence supports rigid cervical collar immobilization as the initial treatment of choice; although the nonunion rate is high, fibrous nonunions are typically stable and asymptomatic in this demographic.

Question 136

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old female with multiple medical comorbidities including severe COPD and ischemic heart disease sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement after a mechanical fall. She is neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

. Placement of a halo vest immobilizer for 12 weeks
. Immediate posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Immobilization in a rigid cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Immediate suboccipital decompression and occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immobilization in a rigid cervical collar


Explanation

In elderly patients (>80 years) with significant medical comorbidities, the treatment of Type II odontoid fractures must balance fracture healing with the severe morbidity and mortality of interventions. Halo immobilization in the elderly carries a mortality rate approaching 20-30% due to respiratory complications and falls. Operative fixation also carries high perioperative risks. Current evidence strongly supports that immobilization in a rigid cervical collar is the most appropriate initial treatment. Although the nonunion rate is higher, the majority are stable fibrous nonunions that remain clinically asymptomatic.

Question 137

Topic: Cervical Spine

During a right-sided anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7, the patient develops a unilateral vocal cord paralysis. The vulnerability of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve during this approach is anatomically explained by its course looping under which of the following structures?

. Aortic arch
. Right subclavian artery
. Right common carotid artery
. Superior thyroid artery
. Brachiocephalic vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Right subclavian artery


Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal nerves (RLN) have asymmetric courses. The left RLN loops under the aortic arch and ascends predictably in the tracheoesophageal groove, making it relatively safe during left-sided approaches. The right RLN loops under the right subclavian artery and has a much more variable, oblique course as it ascends toward the larynx, increasing its risk of iatrogenic injury during lower right-sided cervical spine approaches.

Question 138

Topic: Cervical Spine

The off-label use of recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) in Anterior Cervical Discectomy and Fusion (ACDF) procedures has been strongly associated with which of the following serious postoperative complications?

. Cerebrospinal fluid leak
. Pseudarthrosis at the operated level
. Significant prevertebral soft tissue swelling leading to dysphagia and airway compromise
. Accelerated adjacent segment disease
. Vertebral artery thrombosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Significant prevertebral soft tissue swelling leading to dysphagia and airway compromise


Explanation

The use of rhBMP-2 (Infuse) in the anterior cervical spine is controversial and officially off-label due to a high risk of profound inflammatory responses. This inflammation causes severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling, which can result in life-threatening airway compromise, severe dysphagia, and the need for prolonged intubation or re-intubation.

Question 139

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old man dives into a shallow pool and sustains a C1 burst fracture (Jefferson fracture). An open-mouth odontoid radiograph demonstrates that the combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 is 8 mm. What does this finding indicate and what is the recommended management?

. Intact transverse ligament; treat with a rigid cervical collar
. Ruptured transverse ligament; treat with a halo vest or C1-C2 fusion
. Alar ligament rupture; treat with occipitocervical fusion
. Apical ligament rupture; treat with a soft collar
. Concomitant Type II odontoid fracture; treat with an anterior odontoid screw

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ruptured transverse ligament; treat with a halo vest or C1-C2 fusion


Explanation

According to the Spence rule, a combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than 6.9 mm indicates a rupture of the transverse ligament. This renders the injury highly unstable, necessitating rigid immobilization with a halo vest or surgical C1-C2 fusion.

Question 140

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 80-year-old man sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 6 mm of anterior displacement. He has severe medical comorbidities preventing surgery. He is treated non-operatively. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for non-union in this patient?

. Anterior displacement
. Age > 50 years
. Use of a rigid cervical collar instead of a halo
. Concomitant C1 anterior arch fracture
. Medical comorbidities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age > 50 years


Explanation

Risk factors for non-union of Type II odontoid fractures include age > 50 years, initial displacement > 5 mm, and posterior displacement. Age > 50 is consistently identified in the literature as the single most significant predictor of non-union.