Menu

Question 341

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 50-year-old woman undergoes a C5-C6 anterior cervical discectomy and fusion via a right-sided approach. Postoperatively, she has a hoarse voice, and direct laryngoscopy confirms unilateral vocal cord paralysis. The nerve most likely injured in this approach courses between which two anatomic structures?

. Trachea and esophagus
. Carotid artery and internal jugular vein
. Thyroid gland and strap muscles
. Esophagus and prevertebral fascia
. Cricoid cartilage and thyroid cartilage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trachea and esophagus


Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal nerve is vulnerable during anterior cervical approaches, particularly on the right side where its course is more variable. It normally ascends in the tracheoesophageal groove between the trachea and esophagus.

Question 342

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 55-year-old man undergoes a straightforward C3-C6 anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). Three hours postoperatively in the PACU, he develops rapidly progressive quadriparesis and difficulty breathing. His drain output is minimal, but his neck is visibly swollen. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate stat MRI of the cervical spine
. Open the neck incision at the bedside
. Administer high-dose IV dexamethasone
. STAT CT scan of the neck with contrast
. Re-intubate and transfer to the ICU for observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open the neck incision at the bedside


Explanation

Postoperative retropharyngeal hematoma can cause rapid airway compromise and neurologic deficit. Immediate bedside opening of the wound to evacuate the hematoma is the lifesaving next step before returning to the OR.

Question 343

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old woman sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a fall. She is neurologically intact. Her past medical history is significant for severe COPD and congestive heart failure. Which of the following treatments is associated with the lowest morbidity and mortality for this patient?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 Harms construct (screw-rod)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization


Explanation

In elderly patients with significant comorbidities, surgical fixation and halo vest immobilization carry a high risk of morbidity and mortality. Rigid cervical collar immobilization is the safest initial treatment, accepting a higher rate of nonunion which is often asymptomatic.

Question 344

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old woman with severe COPD and heart failure falls and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of displacement. What is the most appropriate initial management considering her comorbidities?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar


Explanation

In frail elderly patients with significant medical comorbidities, halo vest immobilization carries a high mortality and complication rate. A rigid cervical collar is the preferred initial management despite a higher risk of nonunion.

Question 345

Topic: Cervical Spine

A healthy, active 75-year-old man falls and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 3 mm of displacement. He is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate management that provides the highest union rate and lowest morbidity?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Anterior transoral excision of the odontoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 fusion


Explanation

In active elderly patients, Type II odontoid fractures have a high nonunion rate with conservative care, and halo vest immobilization is associated with high morbidity and mortality. Posterior C1-C2 fusion provides the highest union rate and functional outcome in this demographic.

Question 346

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 75-year-old male sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 3 mm of posterior displacement following a low-energy fall. He is neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Cervical traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar


Explanation

In elderly patients with Type II odontoid fractures, halo vest immobilization has an unacceptably high morbidity and mortality rate. A rigid cervical collar is generally the preferred initial management for minimally displaced fractures in this population.

Question 347

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7, the surgeon uses electrocautery near the lateral border of the longus colli muscle. Postoperatively, the patient develops ipsilateral ptosis and miosis. Injury to which of the following structures is most likely responsible?

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Sympathetic trunk
. Phrenic nerve
. Vagus nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sympathetic trunk


Explanation

The sympathetic trunk runs along the lateral border of the longus colli muscle. Injury to this structure during lateral dissection or retraction results in Horner's syndrome, characterized by ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis.

Question 348

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 25-year-old male sustains a Type IIa Hangman's fracture following a motor vehicle collision. Radiographs show severe anterior angulation of C2 on C3 without significant translation. What is the most appropriate non-operative management?

. Cervical traction followed by a rigid collar
. Halo vest application with the neck in slight compression and extension
. Immediate rigid collar placement in the neutral position
. Halo vest application with the neck in flexion
. High-weight skeletal traction for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest application with the neck in slight compression and extension


Explanation

Type IIa Hangman's fractures involve severe angulation via an atypical flexion-distraction mechanism. Traction is strictly contraindicated as it worsens the deformity; they should be treated with gentle compression and extension in a halo vest.

Question 349

Topic: Cervical Spine

What is the primary advantage of cervical disc arthroplasty over anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) based on long-term randomized trials?

. Reduced operative time and surgical bleeding
. Lower rate of adjacent segment degeneration requiring reoperation
. Higher fusion rate at the index segment
. Less risk of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
. Elimination of postoperative dysphagia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower rate of adjacent segment degeneration requiring reoperation


Explanation

Long-term randomized controlled trials have demonstrated that cervical disc arthroplasty results in a lower rate of adjacent segment degeneration requiring reoperation compared to ACDF. Arthroplasty preserves motion at the index level, theoretically reducing biomechanical stress on adjacent segments.

Question 350

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 6-year-old child presents with torticollis 10 days after an upper respiratory infection. Dynamic CT scan reveals C1-C2 rotatory subluxation with 4 mm of anterior displacement of C1 on C2. According to the Fielding and Hawkins classification, what type is this and what is the status of the transverse ligament?

. Type 1 - intact transverse ligament
. Type 2 - deficient transverse ligament
. Type 3 - deficient transverse ligament and facet capsules
. Type 4 - posterior displacement of C1
. Type 1 - deficient transverse ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type 2 - deficient transverse ligament


Explanation

Fielding and Hawkins Type 2 describes anterior displacement of C1 on C2 by 3 to 5 mm, indicating a deficient transverse ligament. Type 1 has <3 mm displacement with an intact ligament, while Type 3 has >5 mm displacement, indicating failure of both the transverse ligament and secondary stabilizers.

Question 351

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old male sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. He has no neurologic deficits but has a history of severe COPD and congestive heart failure. Which of the following treatments is associated with the highest morbidity and mortality in this specific patient population?

. Rigid cervical collar
. Halo vest immobilization
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Soft cervical collar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Halo vest immobilization


Explanation

Halo vest immobilization in the elderly population carries a significant risk of complications, including respiratory failure, pin site infections, and dysphagia. Studies show an unacceptably high morbidity and mortality rate (up to 30%) compared to surgical fixation or collar immobilization.

Question 352

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 62-year-old male undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). The surgeon chooses a right-sided approach to the lower cervical spine. To avoid postoperative hoarseness, the surgeon must be mindful of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN). Which of the following best describes its anatomic course on the right side compared to the left?

. It loops under the aortic arch
. It is more susceptible to injury due to a highly variable and more oblique course
. It courses directly medial to the trachea in all patients
. It travels within the carotid sheath exclusively
. It loops under the subclavian vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is more susceptible to injury due to a highly variable and more oblique course


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and ascends in a more oblique and variable course toward the tracheoesophageal groove. This makes it theoretically more susceptible to injury during a right-sided lower cervical approach compared to the left RLN, which loops under the aortic arch and ascends vertically within the groove.

Question 353

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 65-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive clumsiness in her hands and difficulty walking. Flexion-extension radiographs reveal an anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) of 11 mm. What is the most critical parameter to evaluate on imaging to determine her risk of impending severe neurologic deficit?

. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI)
. Ranawat criterion
. McGregor's line
. Atlanto-occipital angle
. Clivus-canal angle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI)


Explanation

The posterior atlantodental interval (PADI), also known as the Space Available for the Cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic recovery and risk of deficit in rheumatoid atlantoaxial subluxation. A PADI of less than 14 mm is a strong indication for surgical stabilization to prevent irreversible spinal cord injury.

Question 354

Topic: Cervical Spine

A surgeon plans to use recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) off-label during an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF). The patient should be counseled about a significantly increased risk of which of the following complications compared to autograft?

. Pseudarthrosis at the surgical levels
. Postoperative Horner syndrome
. Dysphagia and prevertebral soft tissue swelling
. Iatrogenic C5 palsy
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve transection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dysphagia and prevertebral soft tissue swelling


Explanation

The use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine is associated with a profound, dose-dependent inflammatory response leading to severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling. This significantly increases the risk of life-threatening airway compromise and persistent dysphagia.

Question 355

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old male with severe COPD and congestive heart failure falls from standing height. CT of the cervical spine reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement. He is neurologically intact. What is the recommended management strategy that balances fracture care with the lowest morbidity and mortality for this specific patient?

. Halo vest immobilization for 12 weeks
. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Anterior single odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation
. Posterior occipitocervical instrumented fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks


Explanation

In frail, elderly patients with significant medical comorbidities, nonoperative management with a rigid cervical orthosis is preferred for Type II odontoid fractures. Halo vest immobilization in this demographic is associated with unacceptably high morbidity and mortality.

Question 356

Topic: Cervical Spine

An 82-year-old female presents with a Type II odontoid fracture displaced by 4 mm posteriorly after a ground-level fall. She has significant medical comorbidities. What is the most appropriate management?

. Halo vest immobilization
. Rigid cervical collar
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 fusion
. Cervical traction followed by soft collar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid cervical collar


Explanation

In elderly patients with significant comorbidities, a rigid cervical collar is the treatment of choice for Type II odontoid fractures due to the high morbidity and mortality associated with both surgery and halo vest immobilization. Fibrous nonunion is generally well-tolerated if stable.

Question 357

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C5-C6, the surgeon utilizes a right-sided approach. Postoperatively, the patient has a hoarse voice but normal swallowing. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Glossopharyngeal nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Hypoglossal nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve


Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates the vocal cords. Injury during an ACDF, more commonly seen on the right side due to its variable and more oblique course, results in postoperative hoarseness.

Question 358

Topic: Cervical Spine

When performing an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), knowledge of the vertebral artery's course is crucial. Moving from proximal to distal, the vertebral artery typically first enters the foramen transversarium at which cervical level?

. C3
. C4
. C5
. C6
. C7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6


Explanation

The vertebral artery normally branches off the subclavian artery and enters the foramen transversarium at the level of C6. It rarely enters at C7, making the C7 transverse foramen often vacant of the main artery.

Question 359

Topic: Cervical Spine

The alar ligaments play a critical role in stabilizing the craniocervical junction. What is their primary biomechanical function?

. Limit atlanto-occipital flexion
. Limit atlanto-axial axial rotation
. Limit atlanto-axial extension
. Prevent anterior translation of the atlas on the axis
. Prevent vertical settling of the odontoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Limit atlanto-axial axial rotation


Explanation

The alar ligaments extend from the sides of the dens to the medial aspects of the occipital condyles. They act primarily to limit axial rotation and lateral bending at the atlanto-axial joint.

Question 360

Topic: Cervical Spine

A patient with advanced rheumatoid arthritis presents with myelopathic symptoms. Flexion-extension radiographs show significant atlantoaxial instability. Which ligament, primarily responsible for limiting axial rotation and lateral bending between the occiput and the axis, is most likely compromised?

. Transverse ligament
. Alar ligament
. Apical ligament
. Ligamentum flavum
. Posterior longitudinal ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alar ligament


Explanation

The alar ligaments connect the dens to the occipital condyles and are the primary restraints to axial rotation and lateral bending at the craniocervical junction.