This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Cervical Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 281
Topic: Cervical Spine
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), the surgeon dissects laterally toward the uncinate processes. Extreme lateral dissection poses a risk of catastrophic injury to the vertebral artery. In the majority of the population, at what cervical level does the vertebral artery enter the foramen transversarium as it ascends toward the brain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C3
Explanation
The vertebral artery typically arises from the subclavian artery and enters the foramen transversarium at the C6 level in approximately 90% of individuals. It then ascends through the upper cervical foramina transversaria. Working lateral to the uncinate process at or above the C6 level puts the vertebral artery directly at risk.
Question 282
Topic: Cervical Spine
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at the C5-C6 level, the surgeon develops the standard plane between the carotid sheath laterally and the trachea/esophagus medially. Which of the following specific fascial layers must be incised to enter this internervous plane?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle layer of deep cervical fascia
Explanation
The anterior approach to the cervical spine utilizes the plane between the carotid sheath and the visceral axis. Accessing this interval requires splitting the pretracheal fascia, which is the middle layer of the deep cervical fascia.
Question 283
Topic: Cervical Spine
During the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing, which specific component of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) complex of the elbow serves as the primary restraint to valgus stress?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. It is further divided into the anterior and posterior bands. The anterior band is tight in extension and serves as the primary restraint to valgus stress throughout the critical degrees of flexion seen during the acceleration phase of throwing.
Question 284
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher is undergoing an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction utilizing an autograft.
Which native anatomical structure is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior bundle of the UCL
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow, particularly between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion, which corresponds to the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. The posterior bundle is a secondary restraint, and the transverse ligament provides no significant stability.
Question 285
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports insidious onset of medial elbow pain and decreased pitching velocity. Physical examination reveals pain with the moving valgus stress test. An MRI confirms a high-grade partial tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). Which specific anatomic structure is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior bundle of the UCL
Explanation
The ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) complex of the elbow consists of the anterior bundle, posterior bundle, and transverse ligament. The anterior bundle is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion, which perfectly correlates with the elbow position during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of the throwing motion. The posterior bundle provides restraint in deep flexion, and the transverse ligament contributes little to no valgus stability.
Question 286
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 82-year-old woman falls from a standing height and presents with localized neck pain. She is neurologically intact. A CT scan of the cervical spine reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement. She has a history of severe COPD, osteoporosis, and congestive heart failure. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rigid cervical collar for 8 to 12 weeks
Explanation
In elderly patients (typically >80 years) with multiple comorbidities, halo vest immobilization is associated with high morbidity and mortality (up to 26%). Anterior odontoid screw fixation is contraindicated due to osteoporosis. While posterior C1-C2 fusion provides highest union rates, surgical risks must be weighed against nonoperative management. For a minimally displaced Type II odontoid fracture in an elderly, highly comorbid patient, a rigid cervical collar provides the best balance of safety and acceptable outcomes. Even if a fibrous non-union occurs, it is usually clinically stable and asymptomatic.
Question 287
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 72-year-old male sustains a trauma to the neck after a fall from a standing height. Radiographs and CT imaging demonstrate a Type II odontoid fracture with 6 mm of posterior displacement.
If surgical intervention is considered, which of the following findings is an absolute contraindication to anterior odontoid screw fixation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Associated rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament
Explanation
Anterior odontoid screw fixation relies on an intact transverse atlantal ligament (TAL) to maintain C1-C2 stability after the dens fracture is reduced and fixed. If the TAL is ruptured, the C1 ring can still translate anteriorly relative to C2, rendering isolated anterior screw fixation mechanically insufficient. In cases of TAL rupture, a posterior C1-C2 fusion is indicated. Advanced age and posterior displacement are risk factors for nonunion but not absolute contraindications for anterior screw fixation, though bone density must be considered.
Question 288
Topic: Cervical Spine
Twelve hours following an elective C4-C5 anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), a 55-year-old male patient suddenly develops progressive difficulty swallowing, stridor, and significant anterior neck swelling. His oxygen saturation drops to 86% on room air, and he exhibits suprasternal retractions. What is the most critical and appropriate immediate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open the neck incision at the bedside to evacuate the hematoma
Explanation
The patient is presenting with a life-threatening, rapidly expanding post-operative retropharyngeal hematoma causing acute airway compromise. In a post-ACDF patient presenting with stridor, hypoxia, and acute respiratory distress, the immediate life-saving maneuver is to open the surgical incision down to the fascial layer at the bedside to evacuate the hematoma and relieve the extrinsic compression on the airway. Waiting for a CT scan, transferring to the OR, or attempting complex intubations without decompressing the neck can result in anoxic brain injury or death. Once the hematoma is evacuated and the airway is secured, the patient can be safely transported to the OR for formal exploration and hemostasis.
Question 289
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 78-year-old man with a history of severe COPD, ischemic heart disease, and osteoporosis sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. Radiographs demonstrate 2 mm of posterior displacement. He is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
Explanation
In elderly patients with Type II odontoid fractures, rigid cervical collar immobilization is increasingly favored as initial management over halo vest immobilization due to the high rates of morbidity and mortality associated with halo application in this demographic (e.g., respiratory decline, pin-site infections). Although surgical fixation (like posterior C1-C2 fusion) offers higher radiographic union rates, the perioperative risks are substantial. Current evidence supports collar immobilization as a safe strategy, as many elderly patients achieve a stable, asymptomatic fibrous nonunion.
Question 290
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 55-year-old female undergoes a C4-C7 Anterior Cervical Discectomy and Fusion (ACDF). Postoperatively, she develops severe and progressive dysphagia, requiring reintubation. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of severe, life-threatening postoperative dysphagia and airway edema in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Off-label use of recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2)
Explanation
The use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine is associated with a significantly increased risk of severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling, which can lead to life-threatening airway compromise and severe dysphagia. The FDA issued a public health warning in 2008 regarding this specific off-label use due to these catastrophic complications.
Question 291
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 55-year-old Asian male presents with progressive hand clumsiness and gait disturbance. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and bilateral upgoing plantars. Imaging demonstrates continuous ossification along the posterior aspect of the vertebral bodies from C3 to C6.
During preoperative planning for an anterior decompression, which of the following radiographic findings is the most significant predictor of an intraoperative dural tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A "double-layer" sign on axial computed tomography (CT)
Explanation
The 'double-layer' sign on a CT scan in patients with Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL) is highly specific for dural ossification. It appears as an anterior and posterior hyperdense rim separated by a central hypodense area of non-ossified ligament. Its presence alerts the surgeon to a significantly increased risk of dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak during anterior cervical corpectomy and decompression. While K-line status is important for choosing between an anterior versus posterior approach, the double-layer sign is the specific predictor for dural ossification and tearing.
Question 292
Topic: Cervical Spine
During a revision anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at C6-C7 on the right side, the surgeon notes postoperative hoarseness in the patient. Indirect laryngoscopy confirms a vocal cord paralysis. Which of the following best describes the anatomical basis for the variable risk to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) during a right-sided versus left-sided anterior cervical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The right RLN loops under the aortic arch, making it more protected than the left.
Explanation
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) loops under the right subclavian artery and ascends into the neck with a more variable, oblique course before entering the tracheoesophageal groove. This makes it more susceptible to surgical injury or retractor stretch during a right-sided anterior cervical approach, particularly at the lower cervical levels (C6-T1). The left RLN loops under the aortic arch and ascends vertically within the protective tracheoesophageal groove, making its location more predictable.
Question 293
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 82-year-old man falls from a standing height and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 3 mm of posterior displacement. He is neurologically intact. He has a past medical history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and ischemic heart disease. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
Explanation
In the elderly population (especially those >80 years old) with significant medical comorbidities, the morbidity and mortality associated with operative intervention or halo vest immobilization are exceedingly high. Halo vests, in particular, severely restrict respiration and are poorly tolerated by patients with COPD, often leading to pneumonia or respiratory failure. For Type II odontoid fractures in frail, elderly patients, nonoperative management with a rigid cervical collar is recommended. Although the nonunion rate is higher with a collar than with surgery, the nonunions are typically stable fibrous unions that are well-tolerated, thus safely avoiding perioperative complications.
Question 294
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 82-year-old woman sustains a ground-level fall and complains of severe neck pain. CT scan (Figure 4) reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement. She is neurologically intact. Which of the following treatments has the highest risk of morbidity and mortality in this specific patient demographic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumental fusion
Explanation
In elderly patients (generally defined as >65 or >80 years old), Halo vest immobilization is associated with unacceptably high rates of morbidity and mortality. Complications include respiratory distress, pneumonia, dysphagia, pin site infections, and a higher mortality rate compared to treatment with a rigid cervical collar or surgical stabilization (such as posterior C1-C2 fusion).
Question 295
Topic: Cervical Spine
During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), meticulous dissection is required to avoid injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN). Which of the following statements most accurately describes the anatomical characteristics and surgical implications of the RLN?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The right RLN has a more variable, potentially non-recurrent course compared to the left, increasing its risk of injury during a right-sided approach.
Explanation
The left recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) has a consistent course, looping under the aortic arch and ascending safely within the tracheoesophageal groove. The right RLN loops under the right subclavian artery and has a more variable, oblique course in the neck. In a small percentage of patients, a non-recurrent right laryngeal nerve may be present, further increasing the risk of iatrogenic injury during a right-sided anterior cervical approach.
Question 296
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 85-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis sustains a Type II odontoid fracture with 3 mm of posterior displacement after a mechanical fall. She complains of neck pain but has no neurological deficits. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rigid cervical orthosis
Explanation
In octogenarians with multiple medical comorbidities, the treatment of Type II odontoid fractures often favors conservative management with a rigid cervical orthosis (collar). Halo vest immobilization is generally contraindicated in the elderly due to a high risk of respiratory complications, pin tract infections, dysphagia, and mortality. While surgical stabilization (C1-C2 posterior fusion) offers the highest union rate, the perioperative morbidity and mortality in frail, elderly patients with significant medical conditions (COPD, CHF) are very high. Although a collar may lead to a fibrous nonunion, this nonunion is typically stable and clinically well-tolerated.
Question 297
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 55-year-old female with long-standing, poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis complains of occipital headache and "electric shock" sensations radiating down her arms when she flexes her neck. Flexion-extension radiographs demonstrate atlantoaxial subluxation. Which of the following radiographic measurements indicates the highest risk for impending neurologic deficit and serves as a strong indication for surgical stabilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) < 14 mm
Explanation
In rheumatoid arthritis, atlantoaxial subluxation is common. While the anterior atlantodental interval (ADI) measures the amount of subluxation, the posterior atlantodental interval (PADI), also known as the space available for the cord (SAC), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic deficit. A PADI of less than 14 mm indicates critical stenosis and a high risk of permanent neurologic injury, warranting surgical intervention (typically C1-C2 fusion).
Question 298
Topic: Cervical Spine
Figure 24 shows the lateral radiograph of an 84-year-old man who sustained a ground-level fall. He complains of high neck pain but is neurologically intact. CT scan confirms a Type II odontoid fracture with 1 mm of posterior displacement. If non-operative management is selected for this patient, which of the following orthoses is associated with the highest mortality rate in this specific demographic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rigid cervical collar
Explanation
Halo vest immobilization in the elderly (especially >80 years of age) is associated with significant morbidity and a high mortality rate (reported up to 40% in some studies). Complications include respiratory compromise, pneumonia, pin tract infections, and falls due to altered center of gravity. For elderly patients with Type II odontoid fractures where surgery is contraindicated or not preferred, current guidelines heavily favor the use of a rigid cervical collar, accepting a higher rate of fibrous nonunion, as it provides adequate pain control with significantly lower mortality.
Question 299
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 55-year-old female with a 20-year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with severe neck pain, suboccipital headaches, and bilateral hand clumsiness. Radiographs show significant basilar invagination.
Which of the following radiographic measurements is the most accurate for diagnosing basilar invagination on a lateral cervical spine radiograph?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The tip of the odontoid projecting > 4.5 mm above McGregor's line
Explanation
Basilar invagination (cranial settling) in rheumatoid arthritis is classically assessed using McGregor's line (a line drawn from the posterior edge of the hard palate to the most caudal point of the occipital curve). An odontoid tip extending more than 4.5 mm above this line is diagnostic of basilar invagination. ADI and PADI assess atlantoaxial subluxation, while BDI and Powers ratio assess occipitocervical dissociation in trauma.
Question 300
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 82-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department after suffering a ground-level fall. He complains of upper neck pain without radiation. Neurologic examination is completely normal. CT imaging of the cervical spine reveals a Type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement. Given the patient's age and clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate management strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immobilization in a rigid cervical collar
Explanation
In the elderly population (especially patients >80 years old), the morbidity and mortality associated with surgical intervention and halo vest immobilization are significantly high. Multiple studies have demonstrated that for mildly displaced Type II odontoid fractures in the elderly, immobilization in a rigid cervical collar is the preferred initial treatment. It offers an acceptable rate of stable nonunion (fibrous union) while avoiding the severe respiratory complications and dysphagia associated with halo vests and surgery.
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