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Question 1

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain. The moving valgus stress test is positive. MRI shows a full-thickness tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). What is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior bundle of the UCL
. Posterior bundle of the UCL
. Transverse ligament of the elbow
. Flexor-pronator mass
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the UCL


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow, particularly from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. The posterior bundle acts as a secondary restraint.

Question 2

Topic: Cervical Spine

During the throwing motion, which bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow is the primary restraint to valgus stress from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress in the elbow. Specifically, its anterior band is taut from roughly 0 to 90 degrees, making it the critical stabilizing structure during the throwing motion.

Question 3

Topic: Cervical Spine

During the acceleration phase of a baseball pitch, significant valgus stress is placed on the elbow. Which structure provides the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Radiocapitellar joint
. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass
. Transverse ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow, particularly between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. The posterior bundle acts only as a secondary restraint.

Question 4

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which structure provides the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing?

. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament of the elbow
. Radial collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator muscle mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion, which covers the late cocking and acceleration phases.

Question 5

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain and decreased pitching velocity. Magnetic resonance arthrography demonstrates a tear of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (MUCL). Which structure is the primary restraint to valgus stress between 30 and 120 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the MUCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. Specifically, its anterior band is tight throughout the functional arc of motion (30 to 120 degrees), while the posterior band is tight only in deeper flexion.

Question 6

Topic: Cervical Spine

In a throwing athlete, the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing is the:

. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. This corresponds to the extreme valgus loads seen during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing.

Question 7

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain during the acceleration phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals valgus instability at 90 degrees of elbow flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Radial collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Posterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (MUCL) is the primary static restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It is most commonly injured in overhead throwing athletes.

Question 8

Topic: Cervical Spine
The majority of studies confirm the presence of atlanto-axial subluxation (AAS) when:
. Anterior atlantodental intervals (AADI) > 0 mm or posterior atlantodental intervals (PADI) < 18 mm
. AADI > 1 mm or PADI ≤ 14 mm
. AADI > 2 mm or PADI ≤ 16 mm
. AADI > 3 mm or PADI ≤ 14 mm
. AADI > 4 mm or PADI ≤ 18 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. AADI > 3 mm or PADI ≤ 14 mm


Explanation

As described by Puttlitz and colleagues, AAS is defined as an AADI greater than 3 mm or a PADI less than 14 mm.

Question 9

Topic: Cervical Spine
The most common traumatic indications for occipitocervical fusion include type III occipital condyle fractures and:
. Basilar invagination
. Atlanto-axial subluxation
. Odontoid fracture
. Atlanto-axial dissociation
. C1-C2 instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlanto-axial dissociation


Explanation

Basilar invagination and atlanto-axial subluxation are more commonly present in degenerative disorders and less in trauma. Odontoid fractures are usually treated via C1-C2 fusion or odontoid screw fixation, although less commonly occipitocervical fusion is required. C1-C2 instability, similarly, is usually treated via C1-C2 stabilization. A more common traumatic indication for occipitocervical fusion is atlanto-axial dissociation.

Question 10

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms best describes Grisel's syndrome?

. Congenital failure of segmentation of the cervical spine
. Autoimmune destruction of the transverse ligament
. Atlantoaxial subluxation secondary to inflammatory retropharyngeal hyperemia
. Ischemic necrosis of the odontoid process
. Traumatic rupture of the alar ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlantoaxial subluxation secondary to inflammatory retropharyngeal hyperemia


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation caused by inflammatory hyperemia of the retropharyngeal space. This typically occurs following a head or neck infection, leading to laxity of the transverse ligament.

Question 11

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which radiographic finding best differentiates an os odontoideum from an acute Type II odontoid fracture?

. Presence of an anterior arch of C1
. Hypertrophy of the anterior arch of C1 with a rounded, sclerotic margin of the ossicle
. Sharp, irregular radiolucent line at the base of the dens
. Posterior displacement of the dens relative to C2
. Widening of the predental space > 3 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypertrophy of the anterior arch of C1 with a rounded, sclerotic margin of the ossicle


Explanation

Os odontoideum presents with smooth, rounded, sclerotic borders of the ossicle and an associated hypertrophic anterior arch of the atlas. This indicates a chronic, long-standing process, unlike the sharp, irregular fracture lines seen in an acute injury.

Question 12

Topic: Cervical Spine

In a patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis, what measurement of the anterior atlantodens interval (ADI) is generally considered an absolute indication for surgical stabilization, even if the patient is asymptomatic?

. > 3 mm
. > 5 mm
. > 9 mm
. Any measurable ADI
. < 3 mm with dynamic flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 9 mm


Explanation

In rheumatoid arthritis, an ADI greater than 9 to 10 mm signifies failure of the alar ligaments and apical ligaments in addition to the transverse ligament. This places the spinal cord at significant risk, warranting prophylactic surgical stabilization.

Question 13

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 7-year-old child presents with torticollis and severe neck stiffness one week after undergoing an adenotonsillectomy. Radiographs demonstrate atlantoaxial subluxation without evidence of trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Os odontoideum
. Grisel's syndrome
. Morquio syndrome
. Jefferson fracture
. Eosinophilic granuloma of the atlas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grisel's syndrome


Explanation

Grisel's syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation most commonly seen in children following upper respiratory tract infections or head and neck surgeries due to inflammatory ligamentous laxity.

Question 14

Topic: Cervical Spine

During an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), the surgeon retracts the longus colli muscles laterally to expose the vertebral bodies. Vigorous or prolonged lateral retraction of this muscle places which of the following structures at highest risk of injury?

. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Superior laryngeal nerve
. Cervical sympathetic chain
. Phrenic nerve
. Hypoglossal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical sympathetic chain


Explanation

The cervical sympathetic chain runs vertically along the lateral border of the longus colli muscle. Lateral retraction can compress it, potentially causing an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome.

Question 15

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 35-year-old manual laborer presents with sudden severe lower neck pain after forcefully shoveling heavy, wet snow. Radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the spinous process of C7. What is the recommended management for this injury?

. Immediate halo vest immobilization
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF)
. Posterior cervical wiring and fusion
. Symptomatic care with a soft collar and gradual return to activity
. Closed reduction and rigid casting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Symptomatic care with a soft collar and gradual return to activity


Explanation

A Clay Shoveler's fracture is a stable avulsion fracture of a lower cervical spinous process (often C6 or C7). Treatment is primarily symptomatic, involving temporary immobilization for comfort and early range of motion.

Question 16

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 7-year-old boy presents with progressive torticollis following a severe upper respiratory tract infection. Radiographs reveal atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Sandifer syndrome
. Grisel syndrome
. Klippel-Feil syndrome
. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
. Posterior fossa tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grisel syndrome


Explanation

Grisel syndrome is a non-traumatic atlantoaxial subluxation caused by inflammation of the adjacent cervical tissues, often following an upper respiratory infection or head and neck surgery. The inflammation leads to laxity of the transverse ligament.

Question 17

Topic: Cervical Spine

In a patient with a suspected Jefferson burst fracture of C1, an open-mouth odontoid radiograph is obtained. According to the Rule of Spence, what radiographic finding indicates a high likelihood of a ruptured transverse ligament?

. Combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than 3 mm.
. Combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than 6.9 mm.
. Anterior atlanto-dental interval (ADI) greater than 3 mm.
. Anterior atlanto-dental interval (ADI) greater than 5 mm.
. Asymmetry of the atlantoaxial joints.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Combined lateral overhang of the C1 lateral masses on C2 greater than 6.9 mm.


Explanation

The Rule of Spence dictates that if the combined overhang of the lateral masses of C1 on C2 exceeds 6.9 mm on an AP open-mouth radiograph, it implies an incompetent transverse ligament. This indicates a highly unstable Jefferson fracture requiring rigid stabilization.

Question 18

Topic: Cervical Spine

Which of the following explains the high rate of non-union seen in Anderson and D'Alonzo Type II odontoid fractures?

. Disruption of the apical ligament leading to instability
. Presence of a vascular watershed zone at the base of the dens
. Interposition of the transverse ligament in the fracture site
. Constant motion from the adjacent C2-C3 facet joints
. Involvement of the highly avascular cortical bone of the dens tip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a vascular watershed zone at the base of the dens


Explanation

Type II odontoid fractures occur at the junction of the dens and the body of C2. This region represents a vascular watershed zone, predisposing these fractures to a high rate of non-union, especially when displaced or in older patients.

Question 19

Topic: Cervical Spine

According to the Fielding and Hawkins classification of atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation, what defines a Type I injury?

. Rotatory fixation without anterior displacement (intact transverse ligament).
. Rotatory fixation with anterior displacement of 3-5 mm.
. Rotatory fixation with anterior displacement greater than 5 mm.
. Rotatory fixation with posterior displacement of the atlas.
. Rotatory fixation combined with bilateral facet dislocation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotatory fixation without anterior displacement (intact transverse ligament).


Explanation

Fielding and Hawkins Type I atlantoaxial rotatory subluxation is characterized by unilateral facet subluxation/fixation with an intact transverse ligament, meaning there is no anterior displacement of the atlas (ADI < 3 mm).

Question 20

Topic: Cervical Spine

During anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF), the sympathetic trunk is at risk of injury if dissection strays too far laterally. The sympathetic trunk lies anterior to which of the following structures?

. Longus colli muscle
. Scalenus anterior muscle
. Carotid sheath
. Vertebral artery
. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Longus colli muscle


Explanation

The sympathetic trunk rests on the lateral border of the longus colli muscle. Injury to it during an anterior approach to the cervical spine can result in Horner's syndrome.