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Question 1281

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A high school football player asks you about an oral supplement that increases body mass and improves sprint times. He would like to use it to improve performance. What is the most likely agent?
. Creatine
. Caffeine
. Testosterone
. Human growth hormone
. Ephedrine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Creatine


Explanation

The supplement is creatine. Approximately 17% of high school athletes and about 30% of high school football players use creatine. Creatine is a protein synthesized in the liver and the kidney, circulates in the bloodstream, and is incorporated into muscle. Its use is associated with increased muscle mass, short-term improvement in sprinting, and may allow for increased anaerobic resistance performance. Caffeine and ephedrine are taken orally but do not increase muscle mass. Testosterone and human growth hormone are both associated with increased body mass but must be injected.

Question 1282

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Initial postoperative management after repair of an acute rotator cuff tear includes
. active range of motion.
. active abduction to prevent scarring.
. passive forward elevation and external rotation within a safe zone determined at surgery.
. eccentric strengthening exercises.
. internal rotation behind the back.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. passive forward elevation and external rotation within a safe zone determined at surgery.


Explanation

In the immediate postoperative period following repair of an acute rotator cuff tear, passive forward elevation and external rotation should be performed within the safe zone determined at surgery. Early active range of motion (prior to tendon healing), internal rotation behind the back, and resistive exercises increase the risk of rupture of the repair.

Question 1283

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figure 12 shows an arthroscopic view from an inferolateral portal of a right knee. The asterisk indicates which structure?
. Anterior cruciate ligament, anteromedial bundle
. Anterior cruciate ligament, anterolateral bundle
. Anterior cruciate ligament, posteromedial bundle
. Anterior cruciate ligament, posterolateral bundle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament, anteromedial bundle


Explanation

The asterisk indicates the anteromedial bundle of the anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament consists of 2 functional bundles: anteromedial and posterolateral. During extension of the knee, the posterolateral bundle becomes taut. In flexion, the anteromedial bundle is tight and the posterolateral bundle relaxes. Recently, techniques for double-bundle reconstruction have been described to recreate the normal anatomic relationship of the 2 bundles.

Question 1284

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The modified Judet approach to the posterior scapula exploits the internervous interval between what two muscles?
. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Supraspinatus and subscapularis
. Infraspinatus and teres minor
. Teres minor and teres major
. Teres major and latissimus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus and teres minor


Explanation

Discussion: The posterior or modified Judet approach to the scapula is typically used for internal fixation of scapular fractures. This approach utilizes a transverse incision over the scapular spine with detachment of the posterior deltoid. The interval between the infraspinatus (suprascapular n.) and teres minor (axillary n.) is identified and used to gain access to the posterior aspect of the scapula and glenoid. The reference by Obremskey et al argues the approach combines several important goals including: 1) exposure of all bony elements of the scapula which have adequate bone stock for internal fixation; 2) minimal trauma to the rotator cuff musculature; and 3) protection of the major neurologic structures (suprascapular nerve superiorly and axillary nerve laterally).

Question 1285

Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old rugby player has severe knee pain after being injured in a game 2 weeks ago. Examination reveals a knee effusion, limited motion, and increased 3+ Lachman’s test and anterior drawer. There is also increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion when the patient is placed in the prone position. Based on these findings, which of the following actions would most likely increase the risk of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction failure?
. Inadvertent rotation of the graft 90 degrees internally prior to its final fixation
. Lack of full knee extension at the time of surgery
. Persistent posterolateral corner injury
. Leaving 1 to 2 mm of bone posterior to the femoral tunnel at the time of the ACL reconstruction
. Placing the tibial tunnel within the ACL footprint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Persistent posterolateral corner injury


Explanation

The patient has a combined ACL and posterolateral corner injury. Failure to diagnose and treat an injury of the posterolateral corner in a patient who has a tear of the anterior or posterior cruciate ligament can result in failure of the reconstructed cruciate ligament. The tibial external rotation test is best performed with the patient in the prone position. A 10-degree side-to-side difference of external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion indicates injury to the posterolateral corner.

Question 1286

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A healthy, active collegiate soccer player returns to your office approximately 10 months after returning to full play and 18 months after undergoing ACL reconstruction with bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. The patient reports landing awkwardly after a jumping for a ball and felt his knee give way. He presents with pain, worse with weight bearing. On physical exam, there is a mild effusion and a grade 2B Lachman. Radiographs are shown in Figure A. What is the likely underlying cause of his current diagnosis? Review Topic

. Inappropriately early return to play
. Improper rehabilitation and conditioning
. Unstable meniscal tear
. Malpositioned tunnel
. Inadequate graft sizing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malpositioned tunnel


Explanation

The most common cause for early failure following ACL reconstruction is a malpositioned tunnel.Ideal tunnel placement on the femoral side should be at the approximately 2 o'clock (for a left knee) or 10 o'clock (for a right knee) position on the lateral wall, which facilitates a more horizontal, anatomic graft. On the tibial side, the tunnel trajectory in the coronal plane should be about 60-75 degrees from the horizontal and the tunnel entrance should be approximately 10-11mm from the anterior border of the PCL.Noyes et al. emphasize the importance of anatomic reconstruction. They recommended against using a transtibial tunnel to make the femoral tunnel because it will result in a vertical orientation. The authors summarized and recommended the use of individual drilling of each tunnel, and using a anteromedial portal to obtain the ideal femoral tunnel.Driscoll et al. compared the rotational properties of a BTB graft placed centrally in the tibial footprint in both groups, but on the femoral side, placed in the anteromedial aspect versus central portion of the ACL femoral origin. They noted a significantly stronger resistance to rotational failure when placed centrally. Thus, noting the importance of placing the graft anatomically, within the central areas of both the tibial footprint and femoral origin.Figure A exhibits malpositioned tunnels, both of which are too vertical. Illustration A exhibits well-placed tunnels, with the horizontality exhibited on the femoral side and approximately 75 degrees from the horizontal on the tibial side.Incorrect answers:

Question 1287

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 20-year-old minor league baseball pitcher is diagnosed with a symptomatic torn ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) in his pitching elbow. Nonsurgical management consisting of rest and physical therapy aimed at elbow strengthening has failed to provide relief. He has concomitant cubital tunnel symptoms that worsen while throwing. What is his best surgical option?
. UCL repair and nighttime elbow extension splinting
. UCL repair with ulnar nerve decompression in situ
. Allograft UCL reconstruction with interference screws
. Autograft UCL reconstruction with ulnar nerve transposition
. Autograft UCL reconstruction using a docking technique

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autograft UCL reconstruction with ulnar nerve transposition


Explanation

DISCUSSION: High-level pitchers with symptomatic UCL tears require reconstruction, with autograft being the best studied graft selection. With concomitant ulnar nerve symptoms, a simultaneous ulnar nerve transposition provides good results. Ligament repairs and allograft reconstructions have not shown good long-term results.

Question 1288

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The MRI scans and diagnostic ultrasound shown in Figures 2a through 2c show what pathologic condition? Review Topic

. Articular-sided supraspinatus tendon tear
. Bursal-sided supraspinatus tear
. Superior labral tear
. Humeral avulsion of the anterior glenoid ligament
. Avulsion of the anterior inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Articular-sided supraspinatus tendon tear


Explanation

The MRI scans and ultrasound show an articular surface partial-thickness rotator cuff tear of the supraspinatus tendon. This condition most commonly involves the supraspinatus tendon and is usually found on the articular surface where the blood supply is less robust. There are multiple intrinsic and extrinsic factors contributing to this condition which include age-related metabolic and vascular changes that lead to degenerative tearing, subacromial impingement, shoulder instability (typically anterior), internal impingement, and repetitive microtrauma. Acute trauma is less often the cause. The physical examination for this condition is often nonspecific and requires supplemental imaging studies for diagnosis.

Question 1289

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Internal impingement of the shoulder and posterosuperior labral pathology in throwers has been most clearly associated with which of the following? Review Topic

. Posterior capsular contracture
. Anterior capsular laxity
. Coracoacromial arch stenosis
. Rotator cuff disease
. Bennet's lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior capsular contracture


Explanation

Posterior capular contracture has been recognized to be the primary pathologic process resulting in internal impingement. Internal impingement of the shoulder describes contact between the posterosuperior glenoid labrum and the undersurface of the rotator cuff at the level of the posterior supraspinatus when the shoulder comes into abduction and external rotation. This contact may be physiologic or pathologic and is frequently seen in overhead throwing athletes, possibly resulting in articular-sided rotator cuff tears, glenoid labral tears, tendinitis of the long head of the biceps, anterior instability, glenohumeral internal rotation deficit, and dysfunction of scapular rhythm. Nonsurgical management is the initial treatment of choice with an emphasis on increasing range of motion and improving scapular mechanics. Anterior capsular laxity may be present with internal impingement but is variable and less directly associated with internal impingement than posterior capsular contracture.Coracoacromial arch stenosis is associated with subacromial impingement and unrelated to internal impingement. Bennett's lesion refers to exostosis or calcification at the posterior capsule and while potentially associated with overhead throwing athletes who may have internal impingement, a causal link between the two has not been established and therefore posterior capsular contracture is the preferred response.

Question 1290

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 17-year-old high school soccer player sustains an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear at the beginning of the season. An MRI scan confirms a complete ACL tear with no meniscal injuries. The patient plans an early return to play and would like to avoid surgery. Therefore, the patient and family should be advised that nonsurgical management consisting of rehabilitative exercises and the use of a functional knee brace will most likely result in:
. recurrent buckling with a probable meniscal tear.
. limitation of motion with a delay in recovery.
. a full return to activity with no limitations.
. an improvement in overall performance.
. an uneventful completion of the soccer season.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. recurrent buckling with a probable meniscal tear.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: While there are athletes who can function at a full level with an ACL tear, they are in the minority. Studies have confirmed the risk of recurrent instability and meniscal injury in athletes with an ACL-deficient knee who participate in cutting sports. One study showed that only 12 of 43 patients who attempted rehabilitation and bracing were able to return successfully for the season. Another study showed that 17 of 31 athletes who were able to return to their sport sustained 23 meniscal tears because of recurrent instability.

Question 1291

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Figure 52 shows the MRI scan of a 28-year-old baseball pitcher. Examination will most likely reveal which of the following findings?
. Clinical findings similar to a large rotator cuff tear
. Weakness of the deltoid
. Numbness in the C7 dermatomal distribution
. Winging of the scapula
. A positive lift-off test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clinical findings similar to a large rotator cuff tear


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A ganglion cyst compressing the suprascapular nerve results in poorly localized pain in the shoulder girdle. Sensation is intact, with weakness of external rotation and abduction. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus atrophy is often noted when viewed from behind. These cysts are typically associated with labral tears. Deltoid weakness is associated with an axillary nerve injury, and scapular winging results from injury to the long thoracic nerve.

Question 1292

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figure 1 shows the radiograph and Figure 2 shows the MRI scan obtained from a 37-year-old woman with a month history of left hip pain. Which combination of a single symptom and examination finding is most likely in this scenario?
. Pain during sitting; flexion abduction and external rotation of the hip
. Groin pain; pain with internal rotation and adduction while supine with the hip and knee flexed 90°
. Clicking; abductor lurch
. Buttock pain; pain with hip extension, adduction, and external rotation while prone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Groin pain; pain with internal rotation and adduction while supine with the hip and knee flexed 90°


Explanation

MRI reveals an anterior labral tear, and the radiograph shows minimal arthritis with possible dysplasia. The most common location of pain in patients with a labral tear is the groin, and the most common physical finding is a positive impingement test result. Pain during sitting, clicking, and buttock pain are frequently described by patients with a labral tear, but these symptoms are less common than groin pain. A positive posterior impingement test finding is more common in patients with a posterior labral tear. Although age over 40 years and a body mass index higher than 30 can adversely affect clinical outcomes after joint preservation procedures such as PAO, hip arthroscopy, and femoral acetabular impingement surgery, the presence of hip arthritis on presurgical radiographs is the most commonly mentioned cause of failed hip joint preservation surgery. Tönnis grade is a radiographic measure of hip arthritis. A higher Outerbridge score is associated with more frequent poor outcomes after hip arthroscopy; however, the Outerbridge cartilage score is determined by direct visualization at the time of surgery. The Outerbridge score cannot be determined presurgically.

Question 1293

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figure 42 shows the sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan of a patient’s right knee. These findings are most commonly seen with a complete tear of the
. patellar tendon.
. lateral collateral ligament.
. medial collateral ligament.
. posterior cruciate ligament.
. anterior cruciate ligament.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. anterior cruciate ligament.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scan reveals disruption of the lateral capsule and ligaments with fluid in the soft tissues laterally. Additionally, there is a large bone bruise on the medial femoral condyle. This combination indicates injury to the posterolateral complex. These injuries often have coexisting anterior and/or posterior cruciate ligament injuries. Failure to recognize the posterolateral corner injury can lead to failure of anterior or posterior cruciate ligament reconstructions. REFERENCES: LaPrade RF, Gilbert TJ, Bollom TS, et al: The magnetic resonance imaging appearance of individual structures of the posterolateral knee: A prospective study of normal knees and knees with surgically verified grade III injuries. Am J Sports Med 2000;28:191-199. Ross G, Chapman AW, Newberg AR, et al: Magnetic resonance imaging for the evaluation of acute posterolateral complex injuries of the knee. Am J Sports Med 1997;25:444-448.

Question 1294

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 56-year-old woman undergoes an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair for a two-tendon retracted tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus), requiring the use of four suture anchors placed in a double row technique. At her 1 month follow-up visit, what is the appropriate recommendation for her continued rehabilitation program? Review Topic

. Initiate isometric external rotation strengthening and continue passive range of motion.
. Initiate eccentric supraspinatus strengthening and continue passive range of motion.
. Initiate light resistance training to minimize atrophy and continue passive range of motion.
. Continue passive range of motion and initiate concentric deltoid strengthening.
. Continue passive range of motion with no active strengthening of the shoulder muscles.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Initiate isometric external rotation strengthening and continue passive range of motion.


Explanation

Regardless of the technique of rotator cuff repair, the biology of tendon healing remains the same. Therefore, the repaired muscle tendon(s) must be protected from stress for a minimum of 6 weeks and more likely 8 weeks in a large two-tendon tear such as this patient had repaired. Therefore, at the 1 month follow-up visit, the patient should continue strict passive motion exercises and should perform no strengthening activities. Deltoid strengthening cannot be isolated from rotator cuff strengthening; therefore, deltoid strengthening is inappropriate as well. Because the infraspinatus is the primary shoulder external rotator, it should not be strengthened for 6 to 8 weeks. Supraspinatus strengthening at this time frame would likely ensure its disruption and result in failure of the surgery. Any resistance training at 1 month from surgery would likely result in tendon failure at the tendon-bone interface. The obligatory need to protect the muscles during healing will predictably result in atrophy but it is easier to strengthen healed muscles than it is to strengthen muscle/tendon units that have failed to heal.

Question 1295

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
What effect does deep freezing have on allograft tissue?
. Causes no deleterious clinical effect on ligamentous grafts
. Causes a less deleterious effect on cartilage than on ligamentous grafts
. Causes degradation of the extracellular matrix
. Allows for preservation of cells with tissue
. Eliminates the chance of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Causes no deleterious clinical effect on ligamentous grafts


Explanation

Deep freezing is the simplest and most widely used method of ligament allograft storage. All cells in the tissue are destroyed with the freezing. However, for this reason, it is not a preferred storage method for menisci or cartilage allografts. Although this method may enhance success because it removes potential antigens located on the cells, it cannot guarantee elimination of HIV transmission. The advantage of cryopreservation storage is that a significant number of cells will survive the process, a factor important in meniscal allograft survival after implantation. No deleterious effects are noted clinically because of the acellularity of the tissue.

Question 1296

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A patient underwent anterior stabilization of the shoulder 6 months ago, and examination now reveals lack of external rotation beyond 0°. The patient has a normal apprehension sign and normal strength, and the radiographs are normal. Based on these findings, the patient is at greater risk for the development of
. recurring instability.
. osteoarthritis.
. osteonecrosis.
. a tear of the rotator cuff.
. internal impingement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. osteoarthritis.


Explanation

Because the patient’s shoulders are overtensioned anteriorly, premature osteoarthritis may develop. This may create obligate translation posteriorly and increase the interarticular pressure of the humeral head against the glenoid. Patients should achieve 20° to 30° of external rotation with the elbow at the side. Late degenerative arthritis following a Putti-Platt procedure is associated with significant restriction of external rotation. This patient’s shoulder has a reduced risk of anterior instability, rotator cuff tear, and internal impingement because of the limitation of motion.

Question 1297

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A football player sustains a traumatic anterior inferior dislocation of the shoulder in the last game of the season. It is reduced 20 minutes later in the locker room. The patient is neurologically intact and has regained motion. If the patient undergoes arthroscopic evaluation, what finding is seen most consistently?
. Superior labral detachment
. Engaging Hill-Sachs lesion
. Large glenoid rim fracture
. Avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humerus
. Avulsion of the anterior inferior glenoid labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avulsion of the anterior inferior glenoid labrum


Explanation

In an acute first-time dislocation, arthroscopy has been shown to reveal a Bankart lesion in most shoulders. The classic finding of labral detachment from the anterior inferior glenoid along with occasional hemorrhage within the inferior glenohumeral ligament is the most common sequelae of a traumatic anterior inferior dislocation.

Question 1298

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old volleyball player has atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. This deficit is the result of entrapment of what nerve?
. Axillary nerve in the posterolateral space
. Dorsal scapular nerve at the medial border of the scapula
. Suprascapular nerve in the scapular notch
. Suprascapular nerve in the spinoglenoid notch
. Subscapular nerve at the rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve in the spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Suprascapular deficits, as the result of repetitive forceful internal rotation with overhead ball striking, occur in the spinoglenoid notch. Compression interferes with distal suprascapular nerve innervation to the infraspinatus, while allowing the supraspinatus to function normally. A scapular notch entrapment of this nerve would involve both the supraspinatus and the infraspinatus.

Question 1299

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 42-year-old woman has cervical stenosis and radicular deficits at the C5-6 and C6-7 levels. History reveals that she has smoked one pack of cigarettes a day for 25 years. Because nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief, she is now seeking surgical treatment. After preoperative counseling, it becomes clear that she is not likely to stop smoking. Which of the following surgical procedures should be used?
. Anterior diskectomy and interbody fusion with autograft at C5-6 and C6-7
. Anterior diskectomy at C5-6 and C6-7, subtotal corpectomy at C6, and iliac strut autograft at C5 to C7
. Anterior diskectomy at C5-6 and C6-7 without fusion
. Anterior diskectomy at C5-6 and C6-7, subtotal corpectomy at C6, and allograft strut at C5 to C7
. Multilevel diskectomy and allograft interbody fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior diskectomy at C5-6 and C6-7, subtotal corpectomy at C6, and iliac strut autograft at C5 to C7


Explanation

In a review of 190 anterior cervical fusions, Hilibrand and associates reported that only 20 of 40 patients who smoked had solid fusion at all levels, whereas 64 of 91 nonsmokers had solid fusions at all levels when treated with multilevel interbody technique (Smith-Robinson). When fused with strut grafts, 14 of 15 smokers and 41 of 44 nonsmokers had solid fusions with a fusion rate of 93% in the same series. Multilevel allografts have a lower fusion rate than autografts, and diskectomy without fusion has an increased rate of residual neck pain.

Question 1300

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

What is the most likely diagnosis based on the MRI findings shown in Figures 87a and 87b? Review Topic

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
. Lateral collateral (LCL) ligament tear
. Patellar dislocation
. Patellar tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear


Explanation

The MRI scans reveal increased signal in the medial facet of the patella and the anterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. This pattern is typically seen in patients with acute patellar dislocations. In patients with ACL tears, the bone bruise of the lateral femoral condyle is usually seen in the central portion at the sulcus terminalis and the posterior half of the lateral tibial plateau and is not usually seen in the patella. This pattern of bone bruising is not seen with patellar tendon ruptures, LCL tears, and PCL tears.