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Question 1261

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
What is the most likely mechanism of injury?
. External rotation
. Posterior translation
. Hyperextension and varus
. Anterior translation and internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior translation and internal rotation


Explanation

The MRI scan shows a bone bruise of the lateral femoral condyle and lateral tibial plateau. This injury pattern is commonly associated with anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture and an abnormal pivot shift test result. Treatment of an ACL tear in a high-demand athlete should consist of ligament reconstruction. In this patient, surgery should be delayed until she regains full range of motion to minimize risk for arthrofibrosis after surgery. Recent analysis has shown that the noncontact mechanism is more consistent with anterior translation, affecting both the medial and lateral compartments. The bone bruise in the lateral femoral condyle occurs more anterior than that of the medial femoral condyle, suggesting that internal rotation has occurred. The external rotation recurvatum test assesses for posterolateral corner injury, and a positive quadriceps active test is consistent with posterior cruciate ligament rupture. An abnormal patellar apprehension test result is suggestive of patellar instability. Nonsurgical treatment is unlikely to result in sufficient stability if this patient returns to sports at her preinjury level of activity. Primary ACL repair is associated with high failure rates. Although the precise mechanism of injury varies, injuries can be broadly classified into contact and noncontact injuries. Noncontact injuries occur with the knee in slight flexion, valgus, and internal rotation, and contact injuries typically involve a lateral-side impact producing a valgus force to the knee. The valgus component of noncontact injuries has been thought to cause mainly lateral compartment bone bruising. Posterior translation is the most common mechanism of posterior cruciate ligament rupture, and hyperextension and varus is associated with posterolateral corner injury.

Question 1262

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figures below show the radiograph and the MRI scan obtained from a 37-year-old woman with a 2-month history of left hip pain. Which presurgical factor is most commonly associated with a poor outcome after a hip joint salvage procedure?
. Age older than 40 years
. Body mass index higher than 30
. Tönnis grade of 2 or higher
. Outerbridge grade of III or IV

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tönnis grade of 2 or higher


Explanation

DISCUSSION: MRI reveals an anterior labral tear, and the radiograph shows minimal arthritis with possible dysplasia. The most common location of pain in patients with a labral tear is the groin, and the most common physical finding is a positive impingement test result. Pain during sitting, clicking, and buttock pain are frequently described by patients with a labral tear, but these symptoms are less common than groin pain. A positive posterior impingement test finding is more common in patients with a posterior labral tear. Although age over 40 years and a body mass index higher than 30 can adversely affect clinical outcomes after joint preservation procedures such as PAO, hip arthroscopy, and femoral acetabular impingement surgery, the presence of hip arthritis on presurgical radiographs is the most commonly mentioned cause of failed hip joint preservation surgery. Tönnis grade is a radiographic measure of hip arthritis. A higher Outerbridge score is associated with more frequent poor outcomes after hip arthroscopy; however, the Outerbridge cartilage score is determined by direct visualization at the time of surgery. The Outerbridge score cannot be determined presurgically.

Question 1263

Topic: Knee Sports

In the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee, what structure provides an important secondary restraint to anterior tibial translation? Review Topic

. Anterior horn of the lateral meniscus
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior horn of the medial meniscus
. Popliteus tendon
. Quadriceps muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior horn of the medial meniscus


Explanation

Cadaveric studies have demonstrated the important role of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus in stabilizing the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee with significantly greater resultant force in the medial meniscus when subjected to anterior tibial loads. The posterior horn of the medial meniscus is thought to limit anterior tibial translation by acting as a buttress by wedging against the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The other soft tissues mentioned do not play any significant role in prevention of anterior tibial translation in the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee.

Question 1264

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 9-year-old boy has lateral right knee pain. An MRI scan shows a discoid lateral meniscus with a partial tear in its central portion. Treatment should consist of Review Topic

. arthroscopic saucerization of the meniscus.
. lateral total menisectomy.
. meniscal transplant.
. arthroscopy and repair of the central tear.
. casting for 6 weeks followed by physical therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. arthroscopic saucerization of the meniscus.


Explanation

A tear of the mid portion of a stable discoid lateral meniscus should be treated with a partial menisectomy with saucerization. Lateral total menisectomy is contraindicated because of the poor long-term results following this procedure. Meniscal transplant and casting do not have a role in this scenario, although meniscal repairs may be needed for peripheral meniscal instability.

Question 1265

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 20-year-old college multisport athlete who has had longstanding pain in his left hip. He denies any specific event that initiated his pain, but he notes that he had hip problems when he was an infant. He denies pain with activities of daily living, but he believes his pain is increasingly limiting his ability to exercise. He localizes the pain to his groin. He denies low-back or buttock pain or pain that radiates down his leg. What is the most likely diagnosis for the source of this patient's pain?

. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Hip flexor strain
. Athletic pubalgia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement


Explanation

This patient has cam-type femoroacetabular impingement. Decreased internal rotation and a positive impingement test (forced flexion, adduction, and internal rotation) are classic findings. The lack of pain with resisted hip flexion makes hip flexor strain unlikely, and the lack of tenderness at the greater trochanter renders trochanteric bursitis unlikely. Although athletic pubalgia can be a source of longstanding groin pain, he lacks the pain with a resisted sit-up and tenderness along the pubic ramus that is frequently noted in patients with pubalgia. His radiographs reveal a focal femoral neck prominence consistent with cam impingement, although pistol grip deformities and flattening of the lateral femoral head are often present as well. His MRI scan shows a labral tear, which is common in cam impingement. Surgical treatment for cam impingement can be effective for symptomatic patients. Even among high-level athletes, open surgical dislocation of the hip has been shown to have good results. Most patients with cam impingement can be treated with arthroscopic osteoplasty and achieve results comparable with those realized with open surgical dislocation. The literature describes success in terms of athletes returning to sports (even professional athletes) to be approximately 90% after arthroscopic treatment. Byrd and Jones described five patients who developed transient neurapraxias that resolved uneventfully. The patients in his series who had concomitant microfracture had a 92% return to sports within the follow-up period. Cam impingement has long been thought to be associated with a history of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis. The capitis in these patients is displaced posteriorly, resulting in a prominent anterior femoral neck and decreased hip internal rotation. Pincer impingement is associated with a deep acetabulum, such as protrusion acetabula and acetabular retroversion. A patient who underwent aperiacetabular osteotomy can develop a more retroverted acetabulum as well.

Question 1266

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Anterior subluxation in a throwing athlete is most commonly the result of
. avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid.
. avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humerus.
. fracture of the anterior glenoid rim.
. excessive capsular laxity from microtrauma.
. a large Hill-Sachs lesion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. excessive capsular laxity from microtrauma.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Subtle anterior subluxation in the throwing athlete most frequently results from excessive capsular laxity because of repetitive microtrauma. Avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid, or more rarely from the humerus, occurs with macrotrauma. A large Hill-Sachs lesion and a glenoid rim fracture also may result from a traumatic anterior dislocation. REFERENCES: Kvitne RS, Jobe FW: The diagnosis and treatment of anterior instability in the throwing athlete. Clin Orthop 1993;291:107-123. Jobe FW, Tibone JE, Jobe CM, Kvitne RS: The shoulder in sports, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1999, pp 961-990.

Question 1267

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

-During preparticipation physicals for college football, an athlete tests positive for the sickle-cell trait.With regard to clearance to play, his team physician should

. counsel the athlete about his personal risk for bone infarcts.
. recommend a prophylactic splenectomy prior to participation.
. bar the athlete from participating in National Collegiate Athletic Association-sanctioned events.
. assure the athlete that he can participate in football without concern.
. ensure that the athlete is given adequate recovery time and remains hydrated.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. counsel the athlete about his personal risk for bone infarcts.


Explanation

Question 1268

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

The MRI scans reveal a root tear of the medial meniscus. Studies demonstrate that this tear pattern greatly increases the tibiofemoral contact forces. These forces, and meniscal extrusion, worsen with increasing flexion. Correct answer : B 69- A 45-year-old postmenopausal smoker with a body mass index (BMI) of 22 has had severe knee pain for the past year. The pain has been progressing and the patient is now only able to perform activities of daily living. Knee radiographs reveal medial compartment osteoarthritis without any involvement of the patellofemoral joint or the lateral compartment. What is the contraindication for a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) in this patient?

. Smoking status
. Postmenopausal status
. BMI
. Radiographic findingsThe principal contraindications to valgus-producing HTO include (1) lateral compartment degenerative joint disease, (2) loss of a significant portion of the lateral meniscus, (3) symptomatic patellofemoral degenerative joint disease,(4) nonconcordant pain (ie, patellofemoral pain with medial compartment osteoarthritis), (5) smoking, (6) patient unwillingness to accept the anticipated cosmetic appearance of the desired amount of angular correction, and (7) inflammatory arthritis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Postmenopausal status


Explanation

In an asymptomatic athlete, what condition represents an absolute contraindication to returning to contact or collision sports?A. Healed one-level anterior cervical fusionB. Congenital atlanto-occipital fusionC. Cervical disk herniation previously treated nonoperativelyD. Spina bifida occultaThe one overriding principle regarding the return to any collision sport, as Torg and associates has described, is that the athlete be "neurologically intact, asymptomatic, and pain-free and have full strength and full cervical range of motion". Forces exerted on the cervical spine can be absorbed by the "elasticity of the intervertebral disk, the mobility of the spine itself, and the impact of absorbing capabilities of the cervical paravertebral musculature". The C1 and C2 levels (atlanto-occipital level) control movement of the skull and articulate the large motion movements. Specifically, partial or complete 56congenital fusion of the atlas to the base of the occiput results in progressive cord compression by the posterior lip of the foramen magnum. It can result in sudden death.A cervical disk herniation that was previously treated nonsurgically and is not causing cord compression in the currently asymptomatic patient is not a contraindication to return to collision sports. Spina bifida occulta is common (10-20% of healthy individuals). It is typically an incidental finding and does not result in neurologic problems. If individuals have a healed anterior, lateral or posterior disk herniation that is treated nonsurgically and they are currently asymptomatic, then there is no contraindication to participation in contact sports. If they require a diskectomy and fusion and they have a solid/healed fusion, are asymptomatic and neurologically intact with full and pain-free range of motion, then there is no contraindication to return to collision sports. An acute disk herniation, a disk herniation with associated pain or neurologic symptoms, or the presence of cord compression or loss of normal lordosis are all contraindications.71- Based on the injury shown on the axial MRI scan of the shoulder in Figure 1, what other pathology should be closely examined for during surgery?A. Subscapularis tearB. Supraspinatus tearC. Superior labral anterior- posterior (SLAP) tearD. Bankart tearThe axial MRI scan reveals a subluxated biceps tendon. In the study by Koh and associates, 85% of patients with a biceps subluxation on MRI were found to have a subscapularis tear at the time of arthroscopy. These are not always obvious on the MRI, and close inspection of the leading edge/upper border of the subscapularis tendon at the time of arthroscopy is necessary. Although supraspinatus tears, SLAP tears, and Bankart tears can all occur in conjunction with a biceps subluxation, none have been shown to be strongly correlated with this pathology, nor as specific to this pathology.73- Figures 1 through 4 are the MRI scans of a 24-year-old former collegiate basketball player who injured his left knee while playing recreational basketball 10 days prior to presentation. He landed from a jump awkwardly and reported that his knee gave out. He heard a pop at the time of injury and was unable to continue playing. He complains of medial and lateral knee pain and difficulty with weight bearing. On physical examination, he has a moderate effusion and his range of motion is from 10° to 80°. Ligament examination reveals a 2B Lachman, negative posterior drawer as well as negative varus and valgus stress testing. What is the diagnosis?A. Meniscus tearB. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tearC. ACL tear and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tearD. ACL tear and medial meniscus tear

Question 1269

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When reconstructing the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) with autograft, what is the most common source of surgical failure?

. Graft choice
. Tunnel position
. Tibial fixation
. Femoral fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tunnel position


Explanation

Technical failure is the most common reason for ACL reconstruction failure. Tunnel position is the most frequent cause for technical failure. Malpositioning of the tunnel affects the length of the graft, causing either decreased range of motion or increased graft laxity. Although graft choice is an important factor when planning an ACL reconstruction, overall outcomes with autograft tissues are fairly similar. Fixation of the graft at the femoral or tibial end is not as important as tunnel position.

Question 1270

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 70-year-old golfer has pain in her dominant shoulder. She reports that initially the pain was at night but now she is unable to play. Examination reveals weakness in external rotation and shoulder abduction. Radiographs reveal the humeral head articulating with a thin acromion. Management should consist of
. a scapular and rotator cuff strengthening program.
. arthroscopy.
. review of her golf technique.
. humeral head replacement.
. an erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a scapular and rotator cuff strengthening program.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Chronic rotator cuff tears should be nonsurgically managed initially with a strengthening program. A cortisone injection may reduce inflammation. Surgery is reserved for patients who continue to have pain and lose sleep despite the use of physical therapy. Blood tests for infection or inflammation are nonspecific. Arthroscopy may play a role, but surgical replacement is reserved for advanced cases. REFERENCES: Bokor DJ, Hawkins RJ, Huckell GH, et al: Results of nonoperative management of full-thickness tears of the rotator cuff. Clin Orthop 1993;294:103-110. Wirth MA, Basamania C, Rockwood CA Jr: Nonoperative management of full-thickness tears of the rotator cuff. Orthop Clin North Am 1997;28:59-67.

Question 1271

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A previously asymptomatic 40-year-old man injures his shoulder in a fall. Examination shows that he is unable to lift the hand away from his back while maximally internally rotated. An axial MRI scan of the shoulder is shown in Figure 14. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Pectoralis major tendon rupture
. Supraspinatus rupture
. Subscapularis rupture
. Bankart tear
. Humeral avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis rupture


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scan shows detachment of the subscapularis from its insertion on the lesser tuberosity. The examination finding is consistent with a positive lift-off test, also indicating a tear of the subscapularis. REFERENCES: Lyons RP, Green A: Subscapularis tendon tears. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2005;13:353-363. Warner JJ, Higgins L, Parsons IM, et al: Diagnosis and treatment of anterosuperior rotator cuff tears. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:37-46.

Question 1272

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A professional pitcher reports pain localized to the medial aspect of his throwing elbow. History reveals that he was pitching in a playoff game and heard and felt a pop in his elbow. MRI reveals a complete ulnar-sided avulsion of the medial collateral ligament (MCL). Examination reveals valgus instability and ulnar nerve involvement. What recommendations should be made based on the patient’s desire to return to sport? Review Topic

. Surgical reconstruction
. Rest, followed by physical therapy
. Splinting in 15 degrees of flexion
. Primary repair
. Arthroscopic debridement, followed by bracing in full extension for 4 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical reconstruction


Explanation

Injuries to the MCL usually result from repetitive high valgus stress on the medial aspect of the elbow joint due to overhead throwing or racquet sports. Excessivestresses during the late cocking and acceleration phase of throwing can injure the anterior band of the MCL. Clinically, the injuries may present as chronic or acute, and a pop may be noted in the latter. Associated ulnar nerve involvement is common. Valgus instability is present in about 25% of patients. Patients typically are athletes who participate in throwing and have localized medial elbow pain and tenderness along the course of a ligament that extends from the medial epicondyle of the distal humerus to the sublime tubercle of the ulna. Surgical reconstruction is the procedure of choice in an athlete desiring a return to a high level of throwing.

Question 1273

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Atraumatic neuropathy of the suprascapular nerve usually occurs at what anatomic location?
. Suprascapular and spinoglenoid notches
. Omohyoid muscle
. Anterior trapezius muscle
. Infraspinatus fascia
. Teres minor superior border

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular and spinoglenoid notches


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch and the spinoglenoid notch before innervating the infraspinatus muscle. At both locations, the suprascapular nerve is prone to nerve compression, which often results from a ganglion cyst. The other anatomic locations are not associated with suprascapular nerve impingement. REFERENCES: Romeo AA, Rotenberg DD, Bach BR: Suprascapular neuropathy. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:358-367. Post M, Mayer J: Suprascapular nerve entrapment: Diagnosis and treatment. Clin Orthop 1987;223:126-136.

Question 1274

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

This image represents the end stage of an uncompensated rotator cuff tear.

. Figure 59a is the CT image of an 86-year-old woman with acromiohumeral distance of less than 2 mm, night pain, and an inability to actively raise the affected arm above shoulder level.
. Figure 59b is the radiograph of a 45-year-old man with acromiohumeral distance equal to 7 mm. He is able to actively raise his arm above shoulder level, has lateral arm pain,
. and abduction and external rotation weakness.56
. Figures 59c and 59d are the radiographs of a 72-year-old man with night pain and reduced range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Figure 59a is the CT image of an 86-year-old woman with acromiohumeral distance of less than 2 mm, night pain, and an inability to actively raise the affected arm above shoulder level.


Explanation

DISCUSSIONAxillary lateral and anteroposterior (AP) images of the right shoulder (Figures 59c and 59d) reveal osteoarthrosis of the glenohumeral joint, which typically is not associated with significant rotator cuff pathology. An examination often shows limitations in range of motion, crepitance, and pain with motion. An AP radiographic image of the right shoulder (Figure 59b) reveals proximal humeral migration, which normally correlates with rotator cuff tear size. Tears extending into the infraspinatus tendon are associated with more humeral migration than is seen with isolated supraspinatus tears. Presenting complaints are usually of pain and weakness. Examination findings include subacromial crepitance and weakness during rotator cuff testing. Rarely, this may be associated with pseudoparalysis in large uncompensated rotator cuff tears. The CT image of the right shoulder (Figure 59a) shows superior migration of the humerus with respect to the glenoid surface and end-stagedegenerative changes at the glenohumeral joint. These changes are classified as rotator cuff arthropathy. Pain and weakness are common, as is the presence of pseudoparalysis and limited range of motion.RECOMMENDED READINGSKelly JD Jr, Norris TR. Decision making in glenohumeral arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty. 2003 Jan;18(1):75-82. Review. PubMed PMID: 12555187.View Abstract at PubMedKeener JD, Wei AS, Kim HM, Steger-May K, Yamaguchi K. Proximal humeral migration in shoulders with symptomatic and asymptomatic rotator cuff tears. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2009 Jun;91(6):1405-13. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.H.00854. PubMed PMID:

Question 1275

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Figures 83a and 83b are the radiographs of a 53-year-old otherwise healthy homemaker who had a syncopal episode and sustained a ground-level fall and injury to her right elbow. She presently admits to right elbow pain, swelling, and an inability to bend her elbow. What is the best initial treatment for this injury?
. Closed reduction with immobilization
. Closed reduction with percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction, bicolumnar fixation with plate and screws
. Open reduction, bicolumnar fixation with Kirschner wires

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction, bicolumnar fixation with plate and screws


Explanation

The radiographs and CT scans indicate a comminuted and displaced intra-articular fracture of the distal humerus. Rigid internal fixation with bicolumnar orthogonal or parallel plating is the treatment of choice for most fractures of the distal humerus that involve the joint surface. Closed reduction and variations thereof will not yield a stable environment for healing. To achieve adequate exposure for fixation, a chevron olecranon osteotomy is the preferred approach. Disadvantages associated with this approach include complications such as nonunion of the osteotomy site and intra-articular adhesions. Prominent hardware may need to be removed during a secondary procedure, and intraoperative conversion to an elbow arthroplasty may be limited. The most common complications after open reduction and internal fixation include elbow stiffness, nonunion (2%-10%), and ulnar neuropathy (0%-12%).

Question 1276

Topic: Knee Sports
Figure 16 shows an axial MRI scan through the knee joint. What structure is identified by the arrow?
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Ligament of Wrisberg
. Ligamentum mucosum
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The anterior cruciate ligament can be visualized on an axial MRI scan as a low-signal structure lying in the lateral aspect of the intercondylar notch. Visualization in multiple planes increases the accuracy of MRI to view the anterior cruciate ligament. The posterior cruciate ligament and ligament of Wrisberg are located on the medial wall of the notch. The ligamentum mucosum is anterior to the notch, and the popliteus tendon is posterior to the lateral femoral condyle. REFERENCES: Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 675-699. Fitzgerald SW, Remer EM, Friedman H, Rogers LF, Hendrix RW, Schafer MF: MR evaluation of the anterior cruciate ligament: Value of supplementing sagittal images with coronal and axial images. Am J Roentgenol 1993;160:1233-1237.

Question 1277

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 30-year-old man underwent an open Bankart repair with capsulorrhaphy for recurrent anterior instability 6 months ago. In a recent fall, he described a hyperabduction and external rotation mechanism of injury. He denies dislocating his shoulder. He now has anterior shoulder pain, weakness, and the sensation of instability. Examination reveals tenderness just lateral to the coracoid and bicipital groove. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 31. Management should now consist of
. immobilization for 3 weeks, followed by rehabilitation.
. open biceps tenodesis.
. arthroscopy with revision stabilization.
. arthroscopy with repair of the superior labrum.
. subscapularis repair.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. subscapularis repair.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Subscapularis tendon tears are being recognized with increasing frequency, and the mechanism of injury involves hyperabduction and external rotation. The patient will have anterior shoulder pain and may report a sensation of instability. Examination will reveal anterior shoulder tenderness over the lesser tuberosity and bicipital groove, and the Gerber lift-off test usually is positive. The MRI scan shown here reveals an intact anterior labrum. The subscapularis tendon is avulsed and retracted, with no evidence of the biceps tendon within the groove; this implies dislocation of the biceps, a common accompanying feature of a subscapularis tear. This injury is also recognized as a complication after open anterior shoulder stabilizations where the subscapularis has been incised as part of the approach. Therefore, the appropriate management involves repair of the subscapularis. The injury does not represent a recurrence so immobilization or revision stabilization, which may be reasonable treatment for recurrent instability, is not indicated. The findings are not consistent with a superior labral tear. REFERENCES: Deutsch A, Altchek DW, Veltri DM, et al: Traumatic tears of the subscapularis tendon: Clinical diagnosis, magnetic resonance imaging findings, and operative treatment. Am J Sports Med 1997;25:13-22. Gerber C, et al: Isolated rupture of the subscapularis tendon. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1015-1023.

Question 1278

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 26-year-old man who injured his knee wrestling one day prior. He has a moderate effusion, medial knee pain and an inability to extend his knee actively or passively. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment option?

. Physical therapy
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction
. Attempted meniscus repair
. Knee aspiration and manipulation under anesthesiaThe images show a bucket handle medial meniscus tear, which is likely responsible for the block to motion. Therefore, surgery should be recommended with a meniscus repair if possible. Physical therapy or knee aspiration/manipulation under anesthesia is not the best definitive treatment.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physical therapy


Explanation

Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 15-year-old boy who sustained an injury to his shoulder after a fall while playing soccer. Following completion of a month-long rehabilitation program, he is able to tolerate sports-specific drills without symptoms. The patient is eager to return to play, as it is mid-season. How should the patient be counseled?

Question 1279

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 13-year-old boy sustains a valgus stress injury to the knee while playing football, and he is unable to bear weight after the injury. Examination reveals tenderness medially superior to the joint line. The knee is held in flexion, and he has a large effusion and localized medial swelling. Plain radiographs show no obvious fracture. What is the next diagnostic step?
. Arthroscopy
. MRI scan
. Stress radiographs
. Tomogram
. Arthrogram

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stress radiographs


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the skeletally mature individual, this mechanism of injury will often result in a sprain of the medial collateral ligament. In skeletally immature patients, the same mechanism can cause a fracture of the distal femoral physis. If the fracture is nondisplaced, the plain radiographs may show only soft-tissue swelling or effusion. While the MRI scan may show edema in the soft tissues on the medial side of the knee and even an abnormality of the physis, stress radiographs provide a quicker and less expensive means of making the diagnosis. Arthroscopy and arthrography would not be helpful in making the diagnosis. Arthroscopy may result in further displacement of the injury. REFERENCES: Smith L: Concealed injury to the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1962;44:1659-1660. Beaty JH, Kumar A: Fractures about the knee in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:1870-1880.

Question 1280

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Which of the following best describes heat stroke?
. Transient loss of consciousness with peripheral vasodilation and decreased cardiac output with normal body temperature
. A condition involving painful contractions of large muscle groups because of decreased hydration and a decrease of serum sodium and chloride
. Hypernatremia in poorly conditioned athletes, manifested by thirst and oliguria with a core temperature of less than 102.2 degrees F (39 degrees C)
. Hyperthermia, central nervous system dysfunction, and loss of thermoregulatory function
. A transient condition that responds to glucose administration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperthermia, central nervous system dysfunction, and loss of thermoregulatory function


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Heat stroke consists of hyperthermia (greater than 105.8 degrees F [41 degrees C]), central nervous system dysfunction, and cessation of sweating with hot, dry skin. It is a medical emergency that results from failure of the thermoregulatory mechanisms of the body. It has a high death rate and requires rapid reduction in body core temperature. Heat syncope is characterized by a transient loss of consciousness with peripheral vasodilation and decreased cardiac output with normal body temperature. Heat cramps involve painful contractions of large muscle groups because of decreased hydration and a decrease of serum sodium and chloride. Heat exhaustion is distinguished by a core temperature of less than 105.8 degrees F.