Question 1261
Topic: 5. Sports MedicineCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Anterior translation and internal rotation
Practice Set 64 of 360
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Anterior translation and internal rotation
. Tönnis grade of 2 or higher
In the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee, what structure provides an important secondary restraint to anterior tibial translation? Review Topic
. Posterior horn of the medial meniscus
A 9-year-old boy has lateral right knee pain. An MRI scan shows a discoid lateral meniscus with a partial tear in its central portion. Treatment should consist of Review Topic
. arthroscopic saucerization of the meniscus.
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 20-year-old college multisport athlete who has had longstanding pain in his left hip. He denies any specific event that initiated his pain, but he notes that he had hip problems when he was an infant. He denies pain with activities of daily living, but he believes his pain is increasingly limiting his ability to exercise. He localizes the pain to his groin. He denies low-back or buttock pain or pain that radiates down his leg. What is the most likely diagnosis for the source of this patient's pain?

. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. excessive capsular laxity from microtrauma.
-During preparticipation physicals for college football, an athlete tests positive for the sickle-cell trait.With regard to clearance to play, his team physician should
. counsel the athlete about his personal risk for bone infarcts.
The MRI scans reveal a root tear of the medial meniscus. Studies demonstrate that this tear pattern greatly increases the tibiofemoral contact forces. These forces, and meniscal extrusion, worsen with increasing flexion. Correct answer : B 69- A 45-year-old postmenopausal smoker with a body mass index (BMI) of 22 has had severe knee pain for the past year. The pain has been progressing and the patient is now only able to perform activities of daily living. Knee radiographs reveal medial compartment osteoarthritis without any involvement of the patellofemoral joint or the lateral compartment. What is the contraindication for a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) in this patient?
. Postmenopausal status
When reconstructing the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) with autograft, what is the most common source of surgical failure?
. Tunnel position
. a scapular and rotator cuff strengthening program.
. Subscapularis rupture
A professional pitcher reports pain localized to the medial aspect of his throwing elbow. History reveals that he was pitching in a playoff game and heard and felt a pop in his elbow. MRI reveals a complete ulnar-sided avulsion of the medial collateral ligament (MCL). Examination reveals valgus instability and ulnar nerve involvement. What recommendations should be made based on the patient’s desire to return to sport? Review Topic
. Surgical reconstruction
. Suprascapular and spinoglenoid notches
This image represents the end stage of an uncompensated rotator cuff tear.
. Figure 59a is the CT image of an 86-year-old woman with acromiohumeral distance of less than 2 mm, night pain, and an inability to actively raise the affected arm above shoulder level.
. Open reduction, bicolumnar fixation with plate and screws
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. subscapularis repair.
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 26-year-old man who injured his knee wrestling one day prior. He has a moderate effusion, medial knee pain and an inability to extend his knee actively or passively. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment option?
. Physical therapy
. Stress radiographs
. Hyperthermia, central nervous system dysfunction, and loss of thermoregulatory function