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Question 61

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

What is the most common cause of shoulder instability?

. Rotator cuff tear
. Traumatic anterior dislocation
. Biceps tendonitis
. Acromioclavicular joint separation
. Adhesive capsulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Traumatic anterior dislocation


Explanation

Traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common cause of glenohumeral instability, often leading to a Bankart lesion or Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 62

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following is NOT a component of the "Terrible Triad" knee injury?

. ACL tear
. MCL tear
. Medial meniscus tear
. PCL tear
. Lateral meniscus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PCL tear


Explanation

The "Terrible Triad" (or O'Donoghue's Triad) involves simultaneous injury to the ACL, MCL, andmedialmeniscus. A PCL tear or lateral meniscus tear is not part of the classic triad.

Question 63

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following describes the function of the subacromial bursa?

. Connects the scapula to the humerus
. Stabilizes the glenohumeral joint
. Produces synovial fluid for joint lubrication
. Reduces friction between the rotator cuff and acromion
. Primary initiator of shoulder abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reduces friction between the rotator cuff and acromion


Explanation

The subacromial bursa is a fluid-filled sac that acts as a cushion, reducing friction between the rotator cuff tendons (especially supraspinatus) and the overlying acromion during shoulder movement.

Question 64

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anatomical medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, the femoral attachment (Schottles point) is identified radiographically. It is properly located:

. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and proximal to Blumensaats line
. Posterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and distal to Blumensaats line
. Directly on the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the superficial MCL origin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and proximal to Blumensaats line


Explanation

Schottles point is defined radiographically as 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaats line.

Question 65

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 35-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. Compared to operative management, utilizing a non-operative treatment plan with early functional rehabilitation is associated with:

. Significantly higher deep infection rates
. Significantly lower return to play rates
. Equivalent re-rupture rates when utilizing early functional weight-bearing protocols
. Decreased plantarflexion strength by 50 percent
. Increased risk of sural nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Equivalent re-rupture rates when utilizing early functional weight-bearing protocols


Explanation

Recent high-level evidence demonstrates that non-operative management using early functional rehabilitation protocols yields equivalent re-rupture rates compared to surgical repair, while avoiding surgical complications.

Question 66

Topic: Knee Sports

A complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus severely disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus. Biomechanically, the resulting knee joint contact pressures are most similar to which of the following conditions?

. An intact knee with an isolated grade 2 MCL sprain
. A knee that has undergone a total medial meniscectomy
. An isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear
. An isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear
. A bucket-handle meniscal tear without displacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A knee that has undergone a total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete medial meniscus posterior root tear renders the meniscus functionally incompetent, leading to altered kinematics and contact pressures that are essentially equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy.

Question 67

Topic: Knee Sports

When evaluating a pediatric patient with poorly localized knee pain, an MRI is obtained. The most common anatomical location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the:

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Patellar articular surface
. Weight-bearing surface of the medial tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most frequent location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesions in the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle.

Question 68

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old female athlete undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. Compared to a hamstring autograft, the BTB graft is most frequently associated with which postoperative complication?

. Higher overall graft failure rate
. Anterior knee pain and discomfort with kneeling
. Increased incidence of postoperative deep vein thrombosis
. Hardware irritation at the tibial fixation site
. Residual valgus knee laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain and discomfort with kneeling


Explanation

The use of a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft is most commonly associated with increased donor site morbidity, specifically anterior knee pain and discomfort when kneeling, compared to soft tissue grafts.

Question 69

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

An athlete reports a snapping sensation at the posterolateral ankle with active dorsiflexion and eversion. Clinical examination reveals anterior subluxation of the peroneal tendons. This condition is primarily associated with insufficiency of the:

. Inferior peroneal retinaculum
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Peroneus brevis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior peroneal retinaculum


Explanation

Peroneal tendon subluxation or dislocation is primarily caused by an injury, avulsion, or insufficiency of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR), which restrains the tendons within the retromalleolar groove.

Question 70

Topic: Knee Sports

According to established treatment algorithms for osteochondral lesions of the talus (OCL), which of the following lesions is best suited for arthroscopic microfracture or bone marrow stimulation as the primary surgical intervention?

. A 2.0 cm squared cystic lesion on the medial talar dome
. A 1.2 cm squared symptomatic lesion that failed 3 months of conservative management
. A 3.0 cm squared uncontained lateral talar dome lesion
. An asymptomatic 1.0 cm squared lesion found incidentally on MRI
. A lesion with a displaced, loose bony fragment measuring 2.5 cm squared

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 1.2 cm squared symptomatic lesion that failed 3 months of conservative management


Explanation

Arthroscopic microfracture is generally recommended as the primary surgical treatment for symptomatic, contained osteochondral lesions of the talus that are less than 1.5 cm squared in total area.

Question 71

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient is evaluated for a suspected posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury following a dashboard injury. An isolated, complete tear of the PCL without posterolateral corner (PLC) involvement will classically demonstrate which dial test result?

. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees only
. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees only
. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees
. Decreased external rotation at 30 degrees
. Decreased external rotation at 90 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees only


Explanation

An isolated PCL injury typically presents with increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion but normal rotation at 30 degrees. Combined PCL and PLC injuries demonstrate increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 72

Topic: Knee Sports

In anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) anatomy, the anteromedial (AM) bundle and posterolateral (PL) bundle exhibit which of the following biomechanical behaviors?

. AM bundle tightens in extension, PL bundle tightens in flexion
. AM bundle tightens in flexion, PL bundle tightens in extension
. Both tighten equally in flexion
. Both tighten equally in extension
. AM bundle is an isometric stabilizer throughout the arc of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. AM bundle tightens in flexion, PL bundle tightens in extension


Explanation

The AM bundle is tightest in flexion, providing primary restraint to anterior translation at 90 degrees. The PL bundle is tightest in extension and provides primary rotational stability.

Question 73

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a non-contact knee injury. MRI reveals an isolated complete tear of the posterolateral corner (PLC). Which of the following physical exam findings is most expected?

. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion
. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but normal at 90 degrees
. Increased internal rotation at 30 degrees
. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees but normal at 30 degrees
. Positive posterior sag sign at 90 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but normal at 90 degrees


Explanation

An isolated PLC injury results in increased external rotation (greater than 10 degrees compared to the contralateral side) at 30 degrees of flexion. If increased external rotation is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 74

Topic: Knee Sports

Placing the femoral attachment of a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) graft too proximal and anterior to its anatomic origin will result in:

. A graft that is tight in extension and loose in flexion
. A graft that is tight in flexion and increases patellofemoral contact pressures
. A graft that remains isometric throughout the arc of motion
. Recurrent lateral patellar dislocation in deep flexion
. Iatrogenic patella baja

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A graft that is tight in flexion and increases patellofemoral contact pressures


Explanation

A femoral tunnel placed too proximal and anterior results in an MPFL graft that tightens excessively in knee flexion. This non-anatomic placement restricts flexion and dramatically increases medial patellofemoral articular contact pressures.

Question 75

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During rehabilitation following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft, closed kinetic chain exercises are preferred early on because they:

. Increase anterior tibial shear force
. Isolate the quadriceps muscle exclusively
. Increase the compressive forces across the knee joint, enhancing stability
. Require maximum knee flexion to execute safely
. Delay the healing of the graft within the bone tunnels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase the compressive forces across the knee joint, enhancing stability


Explanation

Closed kinetic chain exercises promote co-contraction of the quadriceps and hamstrings. This increases axial compressive forces across the joint and minimizes anterior tibial shear, protecting the healing graft.

Question 76

Topic: Knee Sports

The primary restraint to valgus stress of the knee at 30 degrees of flexion is the:

. Superficial medial collateral ligament
. Deep medial collateral ligament
. Posterior oblique ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posteromedial capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The superficial MCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress, providing nearly 80% of the resisting force at 30 degrees of knee flexion.

Question 77

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for an isolated, acute Grade III tear of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) in a professional athlete?
. Immediate surgical repair using suture anchors
. Surgical reconstruction with hamstring autograft
. Hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation
. Cast immobilization in 30 degrees of flexion for 6 weeks
. Strict non-weight bearing for 8 weeks without bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation


Explanation

Isolated acute Grade III MCL injuries have excellent healing potential without surgery. They are typically treated nonoperatively with a hinged knee brace, early range of motion, and progressive weight-bearing.

Question 78

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When repairing a massive, chronic patellar tendon rupture, the patella is often found to be proximally migrated. Which of the following indices is most commonly used on a lateral radiograph to quantify patellar height?

. Merchant angle
. Insall-Salvati ratio
. Q-angle
. TT-TG distance
. Baumann angle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insall-Salvati ratio


Explanation

The Insall-Salvati ratio compares the length of the patellar tendon to the greatest diagonal length of the patella on a lateral radiograph. A ratio greater than 1.2 indicates patella alta.

Question 79

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old gymnast presents with knee pain, and radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Central trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is the classic and most common site for osteochondritis dissecans of the knee, accounting for roughly 70% of cases.

Question 80

Topic: Knee Sports

During a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the surgeon must protect the neurovascular bundle located posterior to the capsule. The most anterior structure of this bundle at the level of the joint line is the:

. Popliteal vein
. Tibial nerve
. Popliteal artery
. Common peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteal artery


Explanation

From anterior to posterior at the level of the knee joint line, the popliteal artery is the most anterior structure. It sits directly posterior to the joint capsule, making it highly vulnerable during PCL surgery.