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Question 41

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A soccer player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by kicking and cutting. An MRI demonstrates a "cleft sign." This represents an injury to the aponeurosis of which two structures?

. Rectus abdominis and adductor longus
. External oblique and pectineus
. Internal oblique and adductor brevis
. Transversalis fascia and gracilis
. Rectus femoris and iliopsoas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus abdominis and adductor longus


Explanation

Core muscle injuries (athletic pubalgia) often involve the confluent aponeurosis of the rectus abdominis and the adductor longus at the pubic symphysis. The "cleft sign" on MRI indicates a tear or detachment in this common aponeurosis.

Question 42

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

How does an Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion differ from a classic Bankart lesion in anterior shoulder instability?

. ALPSA involves an intact anterior periosteum that is stripped and medially displaced.
. ALPSA includes a bony avulsion of the anterior glenoid rim.
. ALPSA involves an isolated tear of the middle glenohumeral ligament.
. ALPSA is characterized by a posterior labral detachment.
. ALPSA includes a tear of the subscapularis tendon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA involves an intact anterior periosteum that is stripped and medially displaced.


Explanation

In an ALPSA lesion, the anterior labrum is avulsed but the anterior scapular periosteum remains intact. This allows the labrum to heal in a medially displaced, nonfunctional position, often requiring surgical mobilization prior to repair.

Question 43

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

In the throwing athlete, a Type II SLAP lesion is most commonly produced by the 'peel-back' mechanism. During which phase of the throwing motion does this mechanism primarily occur?

. Wind-up
. Early cocking
. Late cocking
. Acceleration
. Follow-through

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Late cocking


Explanation

The 'peel-back' mechanism occurs during the late cocking phase of throwing when the shoulder is maximally abducted and externally rotated. This position places a torsional force on the biceps anchor, peeling the superior labrum off the glenoid rim.

Question 44

Topic: Knee Sports

When comparing the biomechanical properties of a 10-mm bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) graft to the native anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), which of the following statements is true?

. The BPTB graft has lower ultimate failure load.
. The BPTB graft is less stiff.
. The BPTB graft has higher ultimate failure load and greater stiffness.
. The native ACL has higher stiffness but lower ultimate failure load.
. There is no biomechanical difference between the two.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The BPTB graft has higher ultimate failure load and greater stiffness.


Explanation

A 10-mm BPTB graft has approximately 168 percent of the strength (ultimate failure load) and is significantly stiffer than the native ACL. However, clinical success ultimately depends on biological incorporation and precise tunnel placement.

Question 45

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial tibia. Physical examination demonstrates a positive Dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

An isolated PLC injury presents with increased external rotation on the Dial test at 30 degrees but not at 90 degrees of flexion. If increased external rotation is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 46

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which of the following describes the underlying pathophysiology initiating the Female Athlete Triad (recognized as part of Relative Energy Deficiency in Sport)?

. Low estrogen levels secondary to primary ovarian failure
. Hypothalamic amenorrhea due to low energy availability
. Decreased calcium absorption leading to osteopenia
. Psychiatric predisposition to anorexia nervosa
. Hypercortisolemia due to overtraining syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypothalamic amenorrhea due to low energy availability


Explanation

The Female Athlete Triad is driven by low energy availability, which suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. This results in functional hypothalamic amenorrhea and subsequent decreased bone mineral density.

Question 47

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old hockey player presents with deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging reveals an aspherical femoral head-neck junction with an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Athletic pubalgia
. Iliopsoas snapping hip syndrome
. Acetabular labral tear secondary to dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement


Explanation

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement is characterized by a non-spherical femoral head or reduced head-neck offset, objectively measured by an alpha angle greater than 50-55 degrees. It frequently causes chondral delamination and labral injury during deep flexion.

Question 48

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI demonstrates articular-sided partial tearing of the infraspinatus and posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the pathophysiologic mechanism?

. Compression of the long head of the biceps against the coracoacromial arch
. Impingement of the greater tuberosity against the posterosuperior glenoid
. Traction injury to the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch
. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis tendon
. Microinstability leading to anterior labral tear and posterior capsular contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Impingement of the greater tuberosity against the posterosuperior glenoid


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs when the shoulder is in maximum abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase). The undersurface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons becomes pinched between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid rim.

Question 49

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old female collegiate cross-country runner presents with a tibial stress fracture and a history of irregular menses for the past year. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry reveals reduced bone mineral density. In the context of the female athlete triad, a deficiency in which of the following hormones is the primary driver of her osteopenia?

. Estrogen
. Progesterone
. Parathyroid hormone
. Cortisol
. Thyroxine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Estrogen


Explanation

The female athlete triad consists of low energy availability, menstrual dysfunction, and low bone mineral density. Hypoestrogenism, secondary to hypothalamic amenorrhea caused by low energy availability, is the primary mechanism driving pathological bone loss.

Question 50

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with painless weakness in her dominant serving shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and significant weakness during external rotation, but normal supraspinatus strength. At which anatomical location is the nerve most likely compressed?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Triangular interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch denervates only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 51

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When evaluating graft choices for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, which of the following autografts possesses the highest initial ultimate tensile load compared to the native ACL?

. 10-mm bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft
. Quadrupled hamstring autograft
. Single-strand semitendinosus autograft
. Quadriceps tendon autograft
. Contralateral native ACL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrupled hamstring autograft


Explanation

A quadrupled hamstring autograft has an initial ultimate tensile load of over 4000 N, which is significantly stronger than the native ACL (approx. 2160 N) and the 10-mm BPTB graft (approx. 2977 N). However, clinical outcomes between BPTB and hamstring grafts remain largely similar.

Question 52

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During shoulder arthroscopy in an overhead throwing athlete, a Type II SLAP (superior labrum anterior to posterior) tear is identified. The dynamic 'peel-back' mechanism that exacerbates this injury occurs primarily when the shoulder is placed in which of the following positions?

. Abduction and internal rotation
. Abduction and external rotation
. Adduction and internal rotation
. Flexion and internal rotation
. Extension and internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abduction and external rotation


Explanation

The peel-back mechanism occurs during maximal abduction and external rotation, mimicking the late cocking phase of throwing. This position increases tension on the biceps anchor, causing it to peel back off the posterosuperior glenoid.

Question 53

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient undergoes a 'dial test' to evaluate a knee injury. The test reveals more than 10 degrees of increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side. However, the external rotation is symmetric at 90 degrees of knee flexion. What injury pattern does this indicate?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury
. Combined ACL and medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

An increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner. If the asymmetry persisted at both 30 and 90 degrees, it would suggest a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 54

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old boy presents with knee pain and intermittent mechanical catching. Imaging confirms an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomical location for this lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Posterior lateral tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. This accounts for approximately 70-80% of knee OCD lesions.

Question 55

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He is diagnosed with internal impingement. This condition is characterized by pathological contact between the posterosuperior glenoid labrum and which of the following structures?

. The acromioclavicular joint undersurface
. The subscapularis tendon
. The articular surface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons
. The long head of the biceps and the transverse humeral ligament
. The subacromial bursa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The articular surface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons


Explanation

Internal impingement is a condition common in overhead athletes where the articular undersurface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus) abuts the posterosuperior glenoid labrum during maximum shoulder abduction and external rotation.

Question 56

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient lies supine with the knee flexed to 90 degrees and the foot flat on the table. The examiner asks the patient to contract their quadriceps while the examiner provides resistance against the foot. The examiner observes an anterior translation of the proximal tibia. What does this 'quadriceps active test' finding indicate?

. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Medial collateral ligament tear
. Posterolateral corner injury
. Complete patellar tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament tear


Explanation

The quadriceps active test assesses for posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) insufficiency. In a PCL-deficient knee, the tibia rests in a posteriorly subluxated position at 90 degrees. Contraction of the quadriceps vector pulls the tibia anteriorly to its normal reduced position.

Question 57

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A collegiate baseball pitcher presents with glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). By true definition, GIRD involves a symptomatic loss of internal rotation compared to the contralateral non-throwing shoulder of at least how many degrees?

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 35 degrees
. 45 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 degrees


Explanation

GIRD is clinically defined as a loss of internal rotation of 20 degrees or more compared to the contralateral non-throwing shoulder. It results from adaptive posterior capsular contracture and osseous retroversion from repetitive throwing.

Question 58

Topic: Knee Sports

Accelerated rehabilitation after anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction has resulted in:

. Increased graft failure rates
. Decreased time to full activity
. Increased rates of stiffness
. Prolonged time to full activity
. Increased meniscal tears

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased time to full activity


Explanation

Accelerated rehabilitation focusing on gaining and maintaining full extension, early unrestricted range of motion, and progression of rehabilitation based on achieving functional goals rather than a strict timeline has resulted in earlier return to sporting activities without compromising the ultimate result.

Question 59

Topic: Knee Sports

Which ligament prevents excessive anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur?

. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)
. Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL)
. Patellar Ligament
. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)


Explanation

The Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur, as well as to rotational forces.

Question 60

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly torn?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The supraspinatus tendon is the most commonly torn of the rotator cuff muscles, often due to its position in the subacromial space and its role in abduction.