5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 26-year-old baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a subjective dead arm. He has a positive O'Brien test and a positive peel-back test during arthroscopy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for a Type II SLAP tear in this overhead throwing athlete?

A 22-year-old hockey player presents with anterior hip pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol-grip deformity and an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary mechanism of labral injury in this condition?

A 14-year-old male presents with persistent right knee pain and catching. Radiographs and MRI reveal a 2 cm osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The physes are open, and the cartilage is intact with no subchondral fluid. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 55-year-old male with end-stage renal disease on dialysis sustains a hyperflexion injury to his knee, resulting in an inability to actively extend the knee. A palpable defect is noted superior to the patella. Which of the following is the most likely location of the tissue failure in this patient?

A 24-year-old professional football player sustains a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury of the knee. Which of the following structures is the primary restraint to varus instability at both 0 and 30 degrees of knee flexion?

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the subscapularis muscle is typically split to expose the anterior glenoid. Which nerve is at greatest risk of injury during the mobilization and transfer of the coracoid process through this split?

A 22-year-old collegiate hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by deep flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees. During the pathomechanical process of this specific deformity, where does the maximal shear stress occur?

A 25-year-old skier sustains an acute ACL rupture. Preoperative MRI shows a hyperintense signal in the posterior medial compartment. During arthroscopy, a 'ramp lesion' is identified. Which of the following best describes the anatomic location of this tear?

A 26-year-old male is evaluated following a knee hyperextension injury. Physical examination reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee. However, at 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric. What injury pattern does this indicate?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball attacker complains of insidious onset posterior shoulder pain and isolated external rotation weakness. EMG reveals denervation isolated to the infraspinatus. What pathology is most likely responsible for this presentation?

A 45-year-old water polo player undergoes arthroscopic repair of a Type II SLAP tear. Which of the following describes the primary mechanism responsible for this injury in overhead athletes?

A 20-year-old female runner has recurrent lateral patellar instability. CT imaging demonstrates a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 24 mm with normal patellar height. Alongside MPFL reconstruction, which additional procedure is most indicated?

A 23-year-old male athlete presents with a focal, symptomatic 4.5 cm squared osteochondral defect on the medial femoral condyle. MRI reveals 6 mm of subchondral bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

Which bundle of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is considered the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion?

A 35-year-old water skier falls and sustains a proximal hamstring avulsion. The tear involves the 'conjoined tendon' of the hamstring complex. Which muscles form this specific tendinous structure at the ischial tuberosity?

A 30-year-old professional basketball player suffers an acute Achilles tendon rupture. When discussing operative versus non-operative management utilizing early functional rehabilitation, what does the current evidence suggest regarding outcomes?

During a physical examination of a patient with suspected anterior shoulder instability, the examiner applies a posterior-directed force to the humeral head while the arm is abducted to 90 degrees and externally rotated. A sudden release of the posterior force reproduces the patient's apprehension. What is this test called?

A 24-year-old hockey player undergoes hip arthroscopy for symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). During osteochondroplasty of the cam lesion at the head-neck junction, the surgeon must be careful to avoid over-resection. Resecting more than what percentage of the femoral neck diameter substantially increases the risk of a post-operative femoral neck fracture?