5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A surgeon is performing a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction using a transtibial tunnel technique. This technique is classically associated with the 'killer turn' at the posterior tibial aperture. Which of the following is the most frequent complication directly resulting from this specific anatomical geometry?

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT imaging demonstrates a Hill-Sachs lesion and a glenoid bone loss of 12%. Applying the 'glenoid track' concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is calculated to be 'off-track.' Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?

A 28-year-old female undergoes hip arthroscopy for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Postoperatively, she complains of numbness in the perineal region and labia. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured due to compression against the perineal post during prolonged surgical traction?

During a surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, anatomic femoral tunnel placement is critical for restoring normal kinematics. In relation to the popliteus tendon attachment on the lateral femoral epicondyle, where is the anatomical origin of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL)?

A highly active 22-year-old male presents with persistent anterior knee pain. MRI and subsequent diagnostic arthroscopy reveal an isolated, 3.5 cm2 Outerbridge grade IV full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. The subchondral bone is intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 35-year-old male professional volleyball player presents with progressive weakness in his dominant shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa and severe weakness in external rotation. Supraspinatus strength and muscle bulk are normal. An MRI is most likely to demonstrate a paralabral cyst compressing the suprascapular nerve at which of the following anatomical locations?

A 24-year-old professional soccer player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. During diagnostic arthroscopy, the surgeon suspects a 'ramp lesion'. Which of the following approaches is most critical for the accurate identification and repair of this specific pathology?

A 19-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. Imaging demonstrates an Insall-Salvati ratio of 1.4, a Caton-Deschamps index of 1.3, and a Tibial Tubercle-Trochlear Groove (TT-TG) distance of 22 mm. Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate?

A 30-year-old male sustains a posterior knee injury. Physical examination reveals a positive posterior drawer test. The Dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 20-year-old competitive rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 23% anterior glenoid bone loss. According to the Instability Severity Index Score (ISIS) and current literature, what is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and a decrease in pitching velocity. Examination reveals 15 degrees of internal rotation and 125 degrees of external rotation in 90 degrees of abduction. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old male undergoes hip arthroscopy for Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI) with a symptomatic Cam lesion and labral tear. To minimize the risk of a postoperative iatrogenic femoral neck fracture, the femoral osteochondroplasty should not exceed what percentage of the femoral neck diameter?

A 21-year-old elite gymnast presents with persistent knee pain. MRI reveals a 3.5 cm squared full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. She has failed conservative management. Which of the following surgical options is most appropriate?

A 58-year-old laborer presents with an MRI-confirmed massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has preserved active forward elevation but severe pain. The teres minor and subscapularis are intact, and there is no glenohumeral arthritis (Hamada Grade 1). Which is the most appropriate surgical option?

A 25-year-old athlete presents with lateral knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. Physical examination reveals increased external rotation on the dial test of 15 degrees compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan shows a 15% anterior glenoid bone loss and a Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the glenoid track concept, an off-track lesion is determined. Which of the following best defines an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion?

A 19-year-old female undergoes medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability. Postoperatively, she complains of severe medial knee pain and restricted flexion. What is the most likely technical error made during femoral tunnel placement?

A 28-year-old football player undergoes posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction. The surgeon decides to use a single-bundle technique to reconstruct the anterolateral (AL) bundle. At what knee flexion angle does the AL bundle normally experience maximum tension?

A 24-year-old skier sustains an acute ACL tear. MRI suggests a posterior horn tear of the medial meniscus at the meniscocapsular junction. Arthroscopic evaluation via a posteromedial portal confirms a ramp lesion. Which of the following biomechanical effects is most exacerbated if this lesion is left untreated?