5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 26-year-old male requires posterolateral corner (PLC) reconstruction following a severe knee injury. The surgeon must understand the biomechanics of the individual structures. Which of the following structures constitutes the primary static restraint to varus opening at 30 degrees of knee flexion?

A 45-year-old female felt a pop in the back of her knee while descending stairs. MRI demonstrates a complete radial tear at the posterior horn of the medial meniscus root, with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. Which of the following best describes the primary biomechanical consequence of this specific injury?

A 19-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. CT imaging reveals a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 23 mm. The trochlear depth and morphology are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player undergoes evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. 3D CT reconstructions reveal 15% glenoid bone loss. An MRI confirms an anterior labral tear and a Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the 'glenoid track' concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is calculated to be 'off-track'. Which of the following surgical procedures is most indicated to minimize recurrence while minimizing bone-block morbidity?

A 25-year-old ice hockey player presents with chronic anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs display a pistol-grip deformity of the proximal femur, and MRI reveals an alpha angle of 65 degrees. Where is the bony pathomorphology primarily located in this condition?

A 22-year-old female basketball player presents with persistent knee pain. MRI reveals a 3.5 cm squared full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing zone of the medial femoral condyle. She had a microfracture procedure 18 months ago that failed to provide relief. Which of the following cartilage restoration techniques is most appropriate?

During surgical reconstruction of a multi-ligament knee injury involving the posterolateral corner (PLC), the surgeon attempts to accurately locate the femoral footprint of the popliteus tendon. Where is the anatomic femoral attachment of the popliteus tendon located relative to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) femoral attachment?

When counseling a high-level athlete on graft choices for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, understanding graft biomechanics is crucial. Which of the following ACL grafts has the highest ultimate tensile load at time zero?

A 55-year-old male laborer presents with a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has minimal glenohumeral osteoarthritis and intact active forward elevation (no pseudoparalysis). He undergoes a superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) with dermal allograft. What is the primary biomechanical objective of the SCR graft?

A 22-year-old female ballet dancer complains of a palpable, audible, and sometimes painful snapping over the lateral aspect of her hip when returning her hip to a neutral position from a flexed and abducted state. What is the underlying pathoanatomy of this specific 'external snapping hip' syndrome?

Which of the following is the primary biomechanical advantage of utilizing the tibial inlay technique compared to the transtibial technique for a Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) reconstruction?

During the evaluation of a patient with a suspected multiligamentous knee injury, the Dial test is performed. Which of the following findings classically indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC)?

A 22-year-old hockey player presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an alpha angle of 65 degrees and decreased head-neck offset. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of cartilage damage in this specific condition?

A 13-year-old gymnast presents with anterior knee pain. Radiographs and an MRI demonstrate a 1.5 cm osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The physes are widely open, and the MRI shows intact cartilage with no fluid behind the bony lesion. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 24-year-old male presents with a symptomatic 3.5 square-centimeter full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He has failed a prolonged course of conservative management. Based on current cartilage restoration algorithms, which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 19-year-old female competitive swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of instability. Examination demonstrates a positive sulcus sign and apprehension in multiple planes. She has failed a 6-month trial of directed periscapular stabilization physical therapy. If surgical intervention is elected, what is the gold standard procedure?

A 20-year-old ballet dancer reports a painful 'snapping' sensation deep in her anterior groin when she extends her hip from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. Dynamic ultrasound confirms the diagnosis of internal snapping hip syndrome. Over what specific bony structure is the involved tendon most commonly subluxating?

A 26-year-old professional soccer player is diagnosed with 'athletic pubalgia' (core muscle injury) after complaining of chronic, recalcitrant groin pain. This condition is classically characterized by a pathological imbalance between the antagonistic forces of which two anatomic structures inserting on the pubis?

A 24-year-old volleyball attacker presents with posterior shoulder pain during the cocking phase of her serve. An MR arthrogram reveals a 'peel-back' SLAP tear and partial-thickness, articular-sided tearing of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus footprint. This constellation of findings is pathognomonic for: