5. Sports Medicine MCQs

In rotator cuff tear arthropathy, the massive, irreparable tearing of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons leads to superior migration of the humeral head. This phenomenon is biomechanically attributed to the disruption of which of the following forces?

When utilizing massive structural cortical allografts in tumor reconstruction, which method of allograft processing is most detrimental to the graft's biomechanical strength, specifically decreasing its torsional strength?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player sustains a recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to minimize recurrence?

A 45-year-old male weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI demonstrates an isolated paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is most likely to show denervation changes on EMG?

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging with 3D reconstruction reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent further recurrences in this high-demand contact athlete?

A 13-year-old male baseball pitcher complains of progressive right shoulder pain during the deceleration phase of throwing. Radiographs demonstrate widening and lateral fragmentation of the proximal humeral physis. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 62-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with preserved subscapularis function. He has significant external rotation weakness and a positive hornblower's sign. He is not a candidate for reverse total shoulder arthroplasty due to medical comorbidities, but is medically optimized for soft tissue surgery. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

A 25-year-old elite overhead throwing athlete presents with deep shoulder pain and a 'dead arm' sensation. An MR arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Non-operative management has failed. During arthroscopy, a significant 'peel-back' sign is noted. What is the classic gold standard surgical intervention for this specific patient population?

A 26-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset, painless weakness of her hitting arm. Examination reveals isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus strength. An MRI is most likely to show a cyst compressing the nerve at which location?

A 48-year-old heavy laborer presents with anterior shoulder pain and clicking. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Conservative management has failed. To optimize his return to heavy labor and minimize postoperative stiffness, what is the best surgical procedure?

A 40-year-old male experiences a seizure and subsequently complains of shoulder pain with a locked internally rotated arm. Radiographs reveal a "lightbulb" sign on the AP view. What is the most likely associated osseous defect?

A 24-year-old professional soccer player undergoes ACL reconstruction. During arthroscopy, the surgeon evaluates the posterior compartments using a 70-degree arthroscope through the intercondylar notch. A longitudinal tear at the meniscocapsular junction of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus is identified. This lesion was not clearly visualized on the standard sagittal MRI sequences. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence if this lesion is left untreated?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. A Latarjet procedure is planned. Which of the following provides the primary mechanism of stabilization in the Latarjet procedure at 90 degrees of abduction and external rotation?

A 62-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has profound weakness in external rotation and a positive external rotation lag sign. His subscapularis is fully intact, and he has active forward elevation to 130 degrees. Which of the following tendon transfers is most classically indicated for this specific pattern of deficit?

A 25-year-old ice hockey player is diagnosed with Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI). Radiographs and MRI demonstrate a prominent Cam lesion with an alpha angle of 68 degrees. In this patient, where is the acetabular cartilage delamination most likely to be located?

A 28-year-old skier sustains an isolated complete posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury. The PCL consists of two distinct functional bundles. Which statement accurately describes the biomechanics of the PCL bundles?

A 45-year-old construction worker presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain and popping. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Non-operative management has failed. Based on current evidence, which surgical intervention provides the most reliable return to work and clinical outcomes for this specific patient profile?

A 14-year-old male with open physes presents with knee pain. MRI reveals a 1.5 cm osteochondral defect (OCD) on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The overlying cartilage is intact, and there is no subchondral fluid line indicating instability. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 20-year-old baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a profound Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). MRI arthrogram shows undersurface fraying of the supraspinatus and a posterosuperior labral tear. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism driving this condition (Internal Impingement)?