This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 601
Topic: Knee Sports
During a physical examination of a patient with a suspected anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury, a positive pivot shift test is elicited. This test primarily evaluates the competency of which functional bundle of the ACL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral bundle
Explanation
The posterolateral (PL) bundle of the ACL is tight in extension and is the primary restraint to rotatory instability. The pivot shift test specifically evaluates this rotatory stability provided by the PL bundle.
Question 602
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
When evaluating a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what specifically defines an "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A Hill-Sachs lesion that is wider than the intact anterior glenoid track, predisposing it to engage.
Explanation
The glenoid track concept evaluates the interaction between glenoid bone loss and the Hill-Sachs lesion. An "off-track" lesion occurs when the Hill-Sachs interval is wider than the remaining intact glenoid track, causing the lesion to engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation.
Question 603
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, a resident places the femoral tunnel too anteriorly. What classical clinical finding will be observed during intraoperative graft tensioning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tightness in extension and laxity in flexion
Explanation
An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel captures the graft in flexion, increasing tension as the knee bends. This leads to severe tightness in flexion and subsequent laxity in extension as the graft stretches.
Question 604
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old overhead throwing athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals a positive active compression test (O'Brien test) that elicits deep joint pain with the forearm pronated, which is relieved with the forearm in supination. What is the most likely associated finding on MR arthrography?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear
Explanation
The active compression test (O'Brien test) is sensitive for SLAP tears. Pain is characteristically elicited with the arm in internal rotation/pronation (which tensions the biceps root) and relieved when the arm is supinated.
Question 605
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old athlete sustains a twisting knee injury. MRI reveals a full-thickness anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear and a displaced bucket-handle tear of the medial meniscus. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Concurrent ACL reconstruction and meniscal repair
Explanation
Concurrent ACL reconstruction and meniscal repair provides optimal knee stability and protects the meniscal repair. The hemarthrosis generated by the ACL reconstruction also enhances the biological environment for meniscal healing.
Question 606
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 19-year-old female collegiate soccer player sustains an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Which of the following anatomic factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of non-contact ACL injuries in female athletes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Narrow intercondylar notch width
Explanation
A narrow intercondylar notch width is a well-established anatomical risk factor for non-contact ACL tears, particularly in females. Increased posterior tibial slope and increased generalized laxity are also recognized risk factors.
Question 607
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male suffers a seizure and subsequently complains of severe right shoulder pain. Radiographs show a "lightbulb" sign on the AP view and an empty glenoid sign. What is the most common associated bony defect seen with this specific injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
Explanation
The patient has a posterior shoulder dislocation, classically caused by seizures or electrical shock. The most common associated defect is a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion, which is an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head.
Question 608
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the evaluation of anterior shoulder instability, an Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion differs from a classic Bankart lesion in which of the following ways?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The anterior scapular periosteum remains intact
Explanation
In an ALPSA lesion, the anterior labrum is avulsed from the glenoid rim, but the anterior scapular periosteum remains intact. This intact periosteal sleeve allows the labroligamentous complex to displace medially and inferiorly.
Question 609
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 15-year-old white boy presents to your office with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and says his neck was twisted away at the time of fall. He was seen at the local emergency department; skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder X-rays showed no damage. There was no loss of consciousness and he has no chest pain or breathing difficulties. He was observed in the hospital until stable and was referred to follow up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks and scheduled for an electromyogram. Clinical examination reveals weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature is preserved and he can grasp and release and pinch. Sensations are decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There is 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of his forearm. Tinel sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report shows fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The parents are concerned and say they have not seen any improvement. The boy reports that he is now able to flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate you notice that he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. What is the least helpful test in further management of this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Computed tomography scan of the neck
Explanation
Computed tomography scan of the cervical spine will not be of any use as it will neither show the pseudomeningoceles nor provide any information on the brachial plexus. CT scan may be needed in case of a suspected neck injury but does not form part of a brachial plexus workup.
Question 610
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 15-year-old white boy presents to your office with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and says his neck was twisted away at the time of fall. He was seen at the local emergency department; skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder X-rays showed no damage. There was no loss of consciousness and he has no chest pain or breathing difficulties. He was observed in the hospital until stable and was referred to follow up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks and scheduled for an electromyogram. Clinical examination reveals weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature is preserved and he can grasp and release and pinch. Sensations are decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There is 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of his forearm. Tinel sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report shows fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The parents are concerned and say they have not seen any improvement. The boy reports that he is now able to flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate you notice that he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The plan of management in this boy 5 months after injury with no clinical improvement should be:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Exploration and nerve grafting
Explanation
Neurotization is appropriate in preganglionic lesions. Around 6 months with no evidence of recovery is the ideal time for plexus exploration. Further observation will not change the picture and tendon transfers are reconstructive procedures, which are done at a later stage.
Question 611
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, a patient develops a "cyclops lesion". Which of the following clinical findings is most characteristic of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Audible clunk during terminal extension with an extension block
Explanation
A cyclops lesion (localized anterior arthrofibrosis) typically presents with a loss of terminal knee extension and an audible or palpable clunk. It is caused by a fibrovascular nodule forming anterior to the ACL graft, often impinging in the intercondylar notch.
Question 612
Topic: Knee Sports
A 45-year-old female experiences a sudden pop in her posterior knee while squatting. MRI reveals a complete radial tear of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus at its bony attachment. Biomechanically, this injury is most equivalent to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A total meniscectomy
Explanation
A complete meniscal root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, resulting in radial extrusion under load. Biomechanically, this alters peak articular contact pressures equivalently to a total meniscectomy, predisposing to rapid cartilage degeneration.
Question 613
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
When comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts to hamstring autografts for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, BPTB grafts are historically associated with a higher incidence of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior knee pain
Explanation
Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts are favored for their rigid bone-to-bone healing and lower failure rates in high-demand athletes. However, they carry a well-documented higher incidence of donor site morbidity, particularly anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling.
Question 614
Topic: Knee Sports
During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, if the femoral tunnel is inadvertently placed too far anteriorly (shallow), what is the most likely clinical consequence during knee range of motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension
Explanation
An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel places the graft anterior to the isometric axis of rotation. This causes the ACL graft to be pathologically tight in flexion, potentially limiting knee flexion, and excessively loose in extension.
Question 615
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old athlete undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with significant glenoid bone loss. Which nerve is most at direct risk during the coracoid transfer and inferior subscapularis split?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. It is at significant risk during coracoid osteotomy, mobilization, and retraction during the Latarjet procedure.
Question 616
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 22-year-old soccer player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction utilizing a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. What is the most commonly reported complication specifically associated with this graft choice compared to hamstring autograft?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior knee pain
Explanation
Anterior knee pain, including pain with kneeling, is the most frequently cited complication following BTB autograft. Patellar fracture is a known but rare complication.
Question 617
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 25-year-old athlete undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Improper placement of the femoral tunnel too anteriorly will result in which of the following kinematic abnormalities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension
Explanation
An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel causes the ACL graft to be loose in extension and excessively tight in flexion. This improper placement leads to a loss of full knee flexion and predisposes the graft to stretching or failure.
Question 618
Topic: Knee Sports
During a physical examination of a patient with a suspected multiligament knee injury, the dial test is performed. The test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner only
Explanation
The dial test measures external rotation of the tibia. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but not at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If increased external rotation is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury is suspected.
Question 619
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Failure following supramalleolar osteotomy for ankle arthritis is associated with:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inadequate correction and poor cartilage on initial arthroscopy
Explanation
In their clinical series, Takakura and colleagues showed that inadequate correction and initial chondromalacia were predictors of poor outcome following supramalleolar osteotomy.
Question 620
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Imaging reveals an anterior glenoid bone loss of 28% and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
Explanation
Anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability is a primary indication for a bony augmentation procedure. The Latarjet procedure restores the glenoid articular arc and provides an active sling effect via the conjoint tendon.
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