5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 22-year-old athlete undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Compared to hamstring autografts, what is the most common complication specifically associated with the BPTB graft type?

A 20-year-old swimmer presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram demonstrates an anterior labroligamentous avulsion where the anterior scapular periosteum remains intact but is stripped medially. Which lesion does this describe?

A 60-year-old patient undergoes an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair for a massive crescent-shaped tear. Biomechanically, what is the primary advantage of utilizing a double-row repair construct compared to a single-row repair?

A 28-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability is found to have a Hill-Sachs lesion on MRI. Which of the following best describes the anatomic nature of this lesion?

A 25-year-old female undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Which of the following is the most commonly reported complication associated with this specific graft choice when compared to hamstring autograft?

The main 3-4 viewing portal for wrist arthroscopy lies in between which two tendons?

C omplications after wrist arthroscopy occur in what percentage of patients:

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction. The surgeon must understand the biomechanics of the PCL's two primary bundles. Which bundle is most taut in knee flexion?

In an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, positioning the femoral tunnel is critical for restoring rotational stability. For a right knee, placing the tunnel at which clock face position optimally mimics the native anatomical footprint?

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes a posterolateral corner (PLC) reconstruction of the knee utilizing a fibular-based technique. The surgeon isolates a nerve that winds posterior to the biceps femoris tendon. A motor deficit resulting from injury to this specific nerve would manifest primarily as weakness in which muscle?

A 29-year-old man with a remote history of wrist trauma and chronic pain presents with a palpable clunk on radio-ulnar deviation of the wrist. The most sensitive technique for identifying a scapholunate injury is:

A 26-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and isolated, profound weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. In which anatomical location is the cyst most likely compressing the suprascapular nerve?

A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The least helpful test in further management of this patient is:

A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The most important indication for early exploration in this patient is:

A 25-year-old overhead athlete presents with deep shoulder pain. MR arthrogram reveals a type II SLAP tear. During arthroscopy, a "peel-back" lesion is noted. This mechanism primarily involves which force applied to the biceps anchor during the late cocking phase of throwing?

When comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft to hamstring autograft for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, which of the following is a recognized disadvantage of the BPTB graft?

A 4-month-old infant with obstetric brachial plexus palsy presents with an internal rotation contracture of the shoulder and complete absence of active biceps function. Wrist extension is also absent. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 40-year-old male presents with sudden, severe, unprovoked right shoulder pain lasting for 2 weeks. As the pain subsides, he notices profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. EMG demonstrates denervation potentials in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old professional volleyball player presents with an insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and progressive weakness in external rotation. Clinical examination shows isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with a completely normal supraspinatus muscle bulk and strength. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

In cases of subacute scaphoid-lunate ligament injury with no arthrosis, all of the following are acceptable options except: