5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability after multiple dislocations. A 3D CT reconstruction reveals an 'inverted pear' shaped glenoid with 25% anterior bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness during her serve. Examination shows normal forward elevation and internal rotation, but weakness in isolated external rotation with the arm at the side. MRI is most likely to reveal a paralabral cyst at which location?

A 55-year-old male construction worker presents with persistent deep shoulder pain. Examination reveals a positive O'Brien test and no rotator cuff weakness. MRI arthrogram demonstrates an isolated Type II SLAP lesion. After failure of a 6-month trial of physical therapy, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals 23% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

A 28-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following is the most likely physical exam finding?

A 32-year-old male weightlifter feels a "pop" in his anterior chest wall while performing a bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. MRI confirms a complete tear of the pectoralis major at its humeral insertion. What is the recommended treatment?

A 45-year-old male sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, he has persistent weakness in internal rotation and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. The bear-hug and belly-press tests are positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain and a "dead arm" feeling during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram reveals a type II SLAP lesion. Following failure of conservative management, what is the preferred surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player sustains his third anterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in her dominant shoulder. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. MRI shows a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?

A 32-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden "pop" in his anterior axilla while performing a bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. MRI confirms a complete tear of the pectoralis major tendon at its humeral insertion. Which of the following is the best treatment?

A 68-year-old man presents with a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and entire infraspinatus, with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration. He has preserved active forward elevation to 140 degrees but lacks active external rotation. Radiographs show no glenohumeral arthritis. Which procedure is most appropriate?

A 40-year-old man presents with shoulder pain after a generalized seizure. He holds his arm adducted and internally rotated. He cannot actively or passively externally rotate the shoulder. Radiographs show a "lightbulb" sign. Which associated lesion is most likely present?

A 20-year-old baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain and a positive O'Brien's test. MRI arthrogram shows a Type II SLAP lesion. After failing a 4-month course of focused physical therapy, what is the recommended surgical treatment?

A 30-year-old competitive tennis player complains of posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. Examination shows point tenderness at the posterior joint line and weakness in external rotation. Arteriogram reveals occlusion of the posterior humeral circumflex artery with shoulder abduction. What are the boundaries of the space involved?

The "terrible triad of the shoulder" typically refers to an anterior shoulder dislocation accompanied by which two additional injuries?

During the physical examination of a patient with suspected rotator cuff pathology, the examiner places the patient's hand behind their back at the lumbar level and asks them to lift the hand away from the back. This test is primarily evaluating the integrity of which structure?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes a preoperative CT scan. The scan demonstrates a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 55-year-old laborer presents with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He lacks active external rotation and forward elevation but has an intact subscapularis. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore external rotation?