5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 20-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan shows 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent dislocation?

Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for an isolated tear of the subscapularis tendon?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with deep, aching anterior shoulder pain. MRI shows a Type II SLAP lesion with no other pathology. He has failed 6 months of conservative management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a 20-degree loss of internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. MRI arthrogram reveals articular-sided, partial-thickness tears of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus. What is the primary underlying pathophysiology?

A 29-year-old professional volleyball player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals profound atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa is preserved. MRI is most likely to show a paralabral cyst at which of the following locations?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT reconstruction shows 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 25-year-old male undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he exhibits profound weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis and active forward elevation to 130 degrees, but profound weakness in external rotation resulting in a positive hornblower's sign. A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is planned. The latissimus dorsi muscle is primarily innervated by which of the following nerves?

During an arthroscopic Bankart repair for a patient with a 15% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, a remplissage procedure is performed. This procedure involves tenodesis of which of the following structures into the humeral head defect?

A 50-year-old man undergoes a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer for an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Biomechanically, this transfer improves shoulder elevation primarily through which of the following mechanisms?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Examination demonstrates a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees. What is the primary pathoanatomy associated with this condition?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation this season. A CT scan of the shoulder reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. He has a positive apprehension test and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 30-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Examination shows full active range of motion and normal strength in abduction, but marked weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is primarily affected?

A 55-year-old male presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain and weakness after falling on an outstretched hand 3 weeks ago. On examination, he has a positive bear-hug test and increased passive external rotation compared to the uninjured side. Which tendon is most likely torn?

A 40-year-old male presents with agonizing right shoulder pain that began 2 weeks ago and lasted for 10 days before subsiding. He now notes profound weakness when trying to abduct or externally rotate the arm. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. EMG shows acute denervation in the supraspinatus and deltoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old female presents with anterior shoulder pain. Ultrasound evaluation demonstrates an empty bicipital groove, with the long head of the biceps tendon displaced medially. This finding is highly correlated with a tear of which of the following structures?

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of instability. Physical exam reveals a positive sulcus sign, excessive anterior and posterior translation, and a Beighton score of 6/9. What is the most appropriate primary treatment?

A 52-year-old male recreational tennis player presents with deep shoulder pain and a clicking sensation. MRI arthrogram shows a type II SLAP tear. He has mild AC joint arthrosis but an otherwise intact rotator cuff. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this specific lesion in this demographic?

A 40-year-old laborer presents with chronic, refractory anterior shoulder pain and profound internal rotation weakness. MRI shows a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated subscapularis tendon tear (Goutallier stage 4), with completely intact supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. What is the most appropriate surgical management?