5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 25-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he presents with inability to flex his elbow and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function and no glenohumeral arthritis. He desires to return to heavy labor. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore active external rotation?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical exam reveals 15 degrees of internal rotation and 125 degrees of external rotation at 90 degrees of abduction, compared to 60 degrees and 100 degrees respectively on the contralateral side. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 42-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe, unrelenting right shoulder pain lasting for two weeks, followed by profound weakness of his deltoid and supraspinatus. There is no history of trauma. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 40-year-old man suffers a first-time seizure and sustains a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan shows an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 24-year-old overhead athlete presents with deep shoulder pain and clicking. MR arthrogram demonstrates detachment of the superior labrum and the origin of the long head of the biceps tendon from the glenoid. What is the standard arthroscopic management for this specific lesion in this patient?

A 35-year-old man presents with posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation strength is normal. Examination reveals atrophy isolated to the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder pain and weakness. Clinical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. What is the most likely location of the labral tear associated with this condition?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management to restore stability?

A 48-year-old recreational tennis player presents with persistent shoulder pain despite 6 months of conservative management. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. What is the most reliable surgical option for this specific patient?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows a 25-degree loss of internal rotation and a 15-degree gain in external rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the initial treatment of choice?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus strength. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Which nerve is most likely compressed, and at what anatomical location?

A 65-year-old man presents with an inability to actively elevate his arm above 45 degrees, despite full passive range of motion. MRI reveals a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration. His acromiohumeral distance is 4 mm. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 42-year-old man presents with a locked shoulder in internal rotation after a generalized seizure. An axillary lateral radiograph confirms a posterior dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT evaluation reveals 22% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after attempting to catch a falling heavy object. Physical examination reveals increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side, and profound weakness on the belly-press test. MRI confirms an isolated full-thickness tendon tear. The involved tendon normally inserts onto which of the following structures?

A 45-year-old manual laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He exhibits severe weakness in external rotation and elevation but has intact subscapularis function. He is considering a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to this procedure?

A 40-year-old man presents with a locked, internally rotated shoulder following a generalized seizure. Radiographs confirm a posterior glenohumeral dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 30% of the articular surface. After closed reduction, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 26-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are 5/5. MRI demonstrates an isolated paralabral ganglion cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical exam findings is most likely present?