This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 5181
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 28% glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
Explanation
For recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), an arthroscopic Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. A coracoid transfer addresses the bony defect and provides a dynamic sling effect.
Question 5182
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows 15 degrees of internal rotation and 130 degrees of external rotation. What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism of his shoulder pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peel-back of the superior labrum and posterior impingement
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead throwers leads to a biomechanical shift. This causes internal impingement, where the undersurface of the rotator cuff impinges against the posterosuperior glenoid, frequently creating a peel-back SLAP lesion.
Question 5183
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a fall onto an outstretched hand. On examination, he has increased passive external rotation. Which of the following physical examination tests would most likely be positive?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bear hug test
Explanation
Increased passive external rotation following acute trauma is highly suggestive of a subscapularis tear. The bear hug test, belly-press test, and lift-off test specifically evaluate the integrity of the subscapularis muscle.
Question 5184
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 20-year-old collegiate gymnast complains of deep shoulder pain and mechanical catching. MR arthrogram demonstrates a detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the glenoid. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
Explanation
In a young, high-demand athlete, a Type II SLAP tear (detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor) is optimally treated with arthroscopic repair. Older patients generally have better outcomes with biceps tenodesis to prevent stiffness and failure.
Question 5185
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. Following closed reduction, he is noted to have numbness over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Which muscle's function is most likely impaired?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deltoid
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during an anterior shoulder dislocation. It provides sensation to the lateral shoulder (regimental badge area) and motor innervation to the deltoid and teres minor.
Question 5186
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 65-year-old manual laborer undergoes arthroscopy for a partial, fraying tear of the long head of the biceps tendon involving 60% of its substance. He expresses a strong desire to avoid cosmetic deformity and cramping. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subpectoral biceps tenodesis
Explanation
Significant partial tears (>50%) of the long head of the biceps tendon are treated with tenotomy or tenodesis. Tenodesis is preferred in active patients or those specifically wishing to avoid the "Popeye" deformity and cramping associated with a tenotomy.
Question 5187
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. The patient is active and desires to return to manual labor. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteochondral allograft reconstruction of the humeral head
Explanation
For reverse Hill-Sachs defects between 25% and 40%, structural bone grafting (osteochondral allograft) is typically recommended to restore articular congruity. Lesser tuberosity transfer (modified McLaughlin) is preferred for defects between 10% and 25%.
Question 5188
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. During arthroscopy, what biomechanical mechanism is most commonly observed to exacerbate the pathology when the arm is placed in the late cocking phase of throwing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peel-back mechanism
Explanation
The peel-back mechanism occurs when the arm is placed in abduction and maximal external rotation (late cocking phase). This position causes the biceps vector to shift posteriorly, creating a torsional force that peels the superior labrum off the glenoid.
Question 5189
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 29-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and progressive weakness. Physical examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already innervated the supraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus denervation and weakness in external rotation.
Question 5190
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old man undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 30% glenoid bone loss. The stabilizing "sling effect" provided by this procedure is primarily dependent on the dynamic tension of which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability through a "sling effect" created by the conjoined tendon (short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis) pressing against the lower subscapularis and anterior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.
Question 5191
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 34-year-old recreational weightlifter complains of vague, poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. MRI demonstrates isolated atrophy of the teres minor. The affected nerve is compressed in a space bordered by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, surgical neck of humerus
Explanation
The patient has quadrilateral space syndrome, compressing the axillary nerve. The quadrilateral space is bordered superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.
Question 5192
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of severe, unrelenting shoulder pain that woke him from sleep. The pain has now begun to subside, but he has noticed profound weakness in overhead elevation and external rotation. MRI of the shoulder reveals no rotator cuff tear. EMG confirms acute denervation of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and deltoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with acute, severe shoulder pain followed by patchy weakness and atrophy of shoulder girdle muscles as the pain subsides.
Question 5193
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During pre-operative planning for a recurrent anterior shoulder instability patient, a 3D CT scan is obtained. The surgeon uses the 'best-fit circle' method on the sagittal en face view to calculate glenoid bone loss. At what threshold of anterior glenoid bone loss is an arthroscopic Bankart repair generally considered to have an unacceptably high failure rate, making a bone block procedure (e.g., Latarjet) the standard recommendation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 20% to 25%
Explanation
Critical glenoid bone loss is historically defined as >20-25%. At this threshold, soft-tissue procedures like Bankart repair have unacceptably high failure rates, and bony augmentation (e.g., Latarjet) is indicated.
Question 5194
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old professional rugby player has a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. He is planned for a Latarjet procedure. Which of the following describes the primary stabilizing mechanism of this procedure when the arm is in the abduction-external rotation (ABER) position?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability via a 'triple effect'. Biomechanical studies demonstrate that in the vulnerable ABER position, the conjoint tendon acting as a dynamic sling across the inferior subscapularis and capsule provides the primary stabilizing force.
Question 5195
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior right shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination demonstrates isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side, but forward elevation and abduction strength are completely normal. An MRI is most likely to show a paralabral cyst in which of the following anatomic locations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Isolated external rotation weakness (infraspinatus) with normal abduction (supraspinatus) indicates suprascapular nerve entrapment distal to the supraspinatus innervation, specifically at the spinoglenoid notch. Entrapment at the more proximal suprascapular notch would affect both muscles.
Question 5196
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 27% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
In young, high-demand collision athletes with critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), an arthroscopic Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet, is definitively indicated.
Question 5197
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 50-year-old man falls on an outstretched arm and experiences acute anterior shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals significantly increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following tests is most likely to be positive?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lift-off test
Explanation
Increased passive external rotation following a traumatic event strongly suggests a subscapularis tear. The lift-off test specifically evaluates the integrity and strength of the subscapularis muscle.
Question 5198
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. Entrapment further proximal at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and the infraspinatus.
Question 5199
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
During a diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy on a 22-year-old pitcher, you identify a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum. However, probing confirms that the biceps anchor remains firmly attached to the superior glenoid tubercle. This corresponds to which classification of SLAP lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type III
Explanation
A Type III SLAP lesion is defined as a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum with an intact biceps anchor. Type II, the most common type, involves frank detachment of the biceps anchor from the glenoid.
Question 5200
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 21-year-old collegiate tennis player complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of his serve. Arthroscopy reveals undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus, along with corresponding posterosuperior labral fraying. This triad is characteristic of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal impingement
Explanation
Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes when the arm is placed in extreme abduction and external rotation. This position causes the undersurface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff to mechanically abut against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum.
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