5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 24-year-old professional football player sustains an acute ACL tear. MRI also demonstrates an avulsion of the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus directly from its tibial root attachment. If left completely untreated, the biomechanical consequence of this meniscal injury most closely mimics that of:

A 20-year-old male collegiate hockey player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reconstruction demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a small off-track Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 45-year-old male competitive water skier sustains a forced hyperflexion injury of the hip with the knee fully extended. He experiences severe deep buttock pain, extensive posterior thigh ecchymosis, and a palpable defect at the ischial tuberosity. MRI reveals a complete 3-tendon proximal hamstring avulsion with 4 cm of distal retraction. What is the recommended management?

A 28-year-old NFL running back sustains a severe hyperextension injury to his great toe. Examination reveals marked ecchymosis, profound swelling, and frank instability of the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint with dorsal translation during Lachman testing. MRI confirms a complete tear of the plantar plate. What is the optimal treatment?

A 45-year-old active male presents with acute medial knee pain after a deep squat. MRI reveals a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. What is the primary biomechanical consequence if this injury is left untreated?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a non-engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention for this athlete?

A 10-year-old Tanner stage 1 male sustains a complete midsubstance ACL tear. His physes are widely open. What is the most appropriate graft choice and surgical technique to minimize the risk of growth arrest?

A 30-year-old female skier sustains a high-energy knee dislocation. Examination reveals absent ACL, PCL, and posterolateral corner (PLC) function. She has palpable but slightly diminished distal pulses. Which of the following is the most crucial step in her immediate post-injury management prior to any operative planning?

A 60-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and pseudoparalysis. He has minimal glenohumeral arthritis. Superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is planned. The graft used in SCR primarily acts to prevent which of the following kinematic abnormalities?

A 24-year-old football player complains of posterior knee pain and instability. Examination demonstrates a positive posterior drawer test and increased external rotation of the tibia at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 16-year-old female dancer has recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Her tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is measured at 22 mm on MRI. She has normal patellar height. Which surgical procedure addresses her specific anatomic risk factor?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with pain in the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI reveals a peel-back SLAP lesion. What biomechanical alteration in the thrower's shoulder is most closely associated with the pathogenesis of this specific lesion?

A 22-year-old soccer player has a symptomatic 3.5 cm^2 full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He has failed conservative management. Which cartilage restoration technique is most appropriate?

A 19-year-old collegiate football linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D computed tomography scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a Hill-Sachs lesion that engages the anterior glenoid rim in abduction and external rotation ("off-track"). Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 9-year-old boy presents with a 6-month history of a painless snapping sensation in his lateral right knee. He recently began experiencing pain and an inability to fully extend the knee. MRI reveals a discoid lateral meniscus. During arthroscopy, the meniscus is found to lack the normal posterior coronary ligament attachments and is hypermobile. Which specific variant of discoid meniscus does this presentation describe?

A 10-year-old boy with wide open physes sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He experiences recurrent instability despite bracing and physical therapy. Which surgical technique is most appropriate to minimize the risk of growth arrest?

An 8-year-old girl presents with a painless clicking and popping sound in her knee during extension. MRI reveals an abnormally thickened meniscus. The Wrisberg variant of this specific condition is characterized by the absence of which of the following stabilizing structures?

A 10-year-old girl with widely open physes sustains a mid-substance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Surgical reconstruction is planned. To minimize the risk of physeal arrest, particularly at the distal femur and proximal tibia, which technique is most appropriate?

A 10-year-old prepubescent girl sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Her bone age confirms she has substantial growth remaining. Which of the following reconstructive techniques is most appropriate to minimize physeal injury?