5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination demonstrates a 25-degree deficit in internal rotation at 90 degrees of abduction compared to the contralateral side. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A 25-year-old professional rugby player sustains an acute knee dislocation resulting in combined ACL and posterolateral corner (PLC) tears. On examination, he exhibits a complete foot drop. What is the most appropriate surgical management for the neurological deficit during his concurrent ligament reconstruction?

A 21-year-old hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion. A frog-leg lateral radiograph reveals an alpha angle of 65 degrees. Physical exam yields a positive FADIR test. The bony deformity associated with this condition is most likely caused by an abnormality located at which of the following sites?

A 45-year-old active female feels a "pop" in her posterior knee while descending stairs. MRI shows medial meniscus extrusion of 4 mm and a radial cleft at the posterior horn root. What are the biomechanical consequences of this specific injury if left untreated?

A 26-year-old athlete undergoes a single-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction for chronic symptomatic instability. To best recreate the primary functional bundle, where should the femoral tunnel be positioned?

A 20-year-old collegiate football lineman presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan reveals 27% anterior glenoid bone loss and an "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

An 18-year-old hockey player sustains a concussion during a game. He rests for 3 days and becomes completely asymptomatic. According to current consensus guidelines (e.g., Berlin/Zurich), what is the prerequisite before he can begin a physical step-wise return-to-play protocol?

A 25-year-old professional soccer player reports chronic, debilitating groin pain exacerbated by kicking, sprinting, and sit-ups. Pain radiates into the perineum. Resisted hip adduction reproduces the pain. MRI shows no intra-articular hip pathology. What is the most common anatomical pathology associated with this condition?

A 16-year-old female experiences an acute lateral patellar dislocation while dancing, which spontaneously reduces. MRI demonstrates a complete, isolated tear of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). At what anatomical location does the MPFL most frequently tear in acute, primary patellar dislocations?

Six months following an ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, a 22-year-old female athlete presents with a 15-degree extension deficit and an audible 'clunk' at terminal extension. MRI demonstrates a localized nodular soft-tissue mass anterior to the tibial tunnel within the intercondylar notch. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of multiple anterior shoulder dislocations presents for surgical evaluation. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to minimize his recurrence risk?

A 28-year-old male presents with knee pain after sustaining a blow to the anteromedial tibia. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test showing 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation normalizes to match the uninjured side. Which structure(s) is/are injured?

A 24-year-old professional hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 75 degrees. Which of the following is true regarding this patient's pathomorphology?

A 65-year-old patient presents with a massive, chronically retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. Electromyography demonstrates denervation potentials in the infraspinatus muscle. What is the predominant anatomic mechanism for this associated neuropathy?

A 13-year-old female gymnast complains of vague lateral elbow pain. Radiographs show a radiolucency of the capitellum. MRI demonstrates a 1 cm osteochondral lesion with an intact overlying articular cartilage, no subchondral fluid, and open physes. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 19-year-old elite female soccer player undergoes primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Which of the following clinical scenarios is considered the strongest indication for adding a concomitant lateral extra-articular tenodesis (LET) or anterolateral ligament (ALL) reconstruction?