This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4781
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 24-year-old professional soccer player has a symptomatic 1.5 cm² focal grade IV osteochondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He wishes to return to high-level play as rapidly as possible. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the highest rate of rapid return to sport for this specific lesion size and patient profile?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
Explanation
Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS) is highly indicated for small to medium-sized focal osteochondral defects (< 2 cm²) in high-demand athletes. OATS replaces the defect with mature, intact hyaline cartilage and subchondral bone, allowing for immediate graft integration and a significantly faster return to sport compared to staged cell-based therapies like MACI, or marrow-stimulation techniques (microfracture) which yield less durable fibrocartilage.
Question 4782
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his proximal tibia while his knee is fully extended. He presents with posterolateral knee pain and a varus thrust during gait. Physical examination reveals a positive Dial test, demonstrating 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Popliteus tendon and fibular collateral ligament (FCL)
Explanation
The finding of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees of flexion on the Dial test is pathognomonic for an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The primary stabilizers of the PLC include the fibular collateral ligament (FCL), popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament. If the Dial test showed increased external rotation at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees, it would indicate a combined PLC and PCL injury.
Question 4783
Topic: General Sports & Tendon
A 45-year-old competitive water skier sustains a forced hyperflexion injury of the hip with the knee fully extended. She experiences a loud pop and profound weakness in knee flexion and hip extension. MRI confirms a complete 3-tendon avulsion of the proximal hamstring origin with 4 cm of distal retraction. During surgical repair, what anatomic landmark relationship is most critical for locating and protecting the sciatic nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral to the ischial tuberosity, deep to the long head of the biceps femoris
Explanation
The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and descends lateral to the ischial tuberosity. As it courses distally into the posterior thigh, it lies deep (anterior) and slightly lateral to the conjoint tendon (the long head of the biceps femoris and semitendinosus). During a proximal hamstring repair, specifically when mobilizing retracted tendons, identifying and protecting the sciatic nerve in this lateral and deep position is the most critical step to prevent catastrophic iatrogenic nerve injury.
Question 4784
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 24-year-old female soccer player undergoes an ACL reconstruction with a quadrupled hamstring autograft. During the rehabilitation phase, she struggles with deep knee flexion strength. Which of the following best describes the expected persistent muscle strength deficit following this specific graft choice compared to patellar tendon autograft?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased peak flexion torque at 90 degrees or more of flexion
Explanation
Hamstring autograft ACL reconstruction is commonly associated with a postoperative deficit in deep knee flexion strength (flexion >90 degrees) when compared to bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts. While both grafts have excellent clinical outcomes, the harvest of the semitendinosus and gracilis permanently alters the morphology and strength profile of the hamstrings, particularly in deep flexion and internal tibial rotation.
Question 4785
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player sustains recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. An en face 3D CT reconstruction of the glenoid demonstrates 22% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to restore stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
Critical glenoid bone loss, typically defined as greater than 15-20% in collision athletes, leads to unacceptably high failure rates following isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid) is the treatment of choice as it restores the bony arc and provides a dynamic sling effect from the conjoint tendon, effectively stabilizing the shoulder.
Question 4786
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 32-year-old male bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior chest while bench pressing. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. Surgery is planned for a pectoralis major tendon rupture. To restore the native footprint anatomy, the sternal head of the pectoralis major should be reattached in which anatomical position relative to the clavicular head on the humerus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and posterior
Explanation
The pectoralis major tendon undergoes a 180-degree twist before inserting onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus. Due to this twist, the inferiorly originating fibers (sternal head) insert proximal and posterior (deep) to the superiorly originating fibers (clavicular head). Accurate restoration of this footprint is crucial during surgical repair.
Question 4787
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 40-year-old recreational basketball player sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. He opts for functional rehabilitation (nonoperative management) with an early weight-bearing protocol. Compared to surgical repair, which of the following outcomes is most likely expected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower rate of sural nerve injury
Explanation
Recent high-quality meta-analyses show that functional rehabilitation with early weight-bearing for acute Achilles tendon ruptures yields similar re-rupture rates and functional outcomes compared to operative repair. However, nonoperative management avoids surgical complications, most notably infection and sural nerve injury.
Question 4788
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 28-year-old male undergoes hip arthroscopy for cam-type femoroacetabular impingement. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness over the dorsal aspect of his foot and weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension. Which of the following intraoperative factors most likely contributed to this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prolonged traction time exceeding 2 hours
Explanation
The patient is presenting with a sciatic nerve neuropraxia, specifically affecting the common peroneal division, which causes foot drop and dorsal foot numbness. This is a known complication of hip arthroscopy due to excessive or prolonged traction. To minimize the risk of neurapraxia (pudendal or sciatic), traction times should ideally be minimized and strictly kept under 2 hours.
Question 4789
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a decline in pitching velocity. Physical exam reveals a positive O'Brien test and positive posterior impingement sign. A peel-back mechanism of the superior labrum is visualized on MRI arthrogram. Which of the following physical exam findings is most commonly associated with this pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased external rotation and decreased internal rotation in abduction
Explanation
Throwing athletes commonly develop Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD), characterized by a loss of internal rotation and a compensatory increase in external rotation when measured in 90 degrees of abduction. This altered kinematics shifts the humeral head posterosuperiorly during the late cocking phase, leading to internal impingement and the 'peel-back' mechanism that causes Type II SLAP lesions.
Question 4790
Topic: Knee Sports
An 18-year-old football player sustains a contact injury to his knee resulting in a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. During anatomical reconstruction of the PLC, the surgeon aims to reconstruct the three major static stabilizing structures. Which of the following structures must be reconstructed to restore normal biomechanics?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibular collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
The posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee contains numerous structures, but biomechanical studies have identified three primary static stabilizers: the fibular collateral ligament (FCL/LCL), the popliteus tendon (PT), and the popliteofibular ligament (PFL). Anatomic reconstructions of the PLC are designed to specifically recreate these three main components to adequately restore varus and external rotational stability.
Question 4791
Topic: Knee Sports
A 45-year-old recreational runner feels a "pop" in the posterior aspect of her knee while performing a deep squat. An MRI confirms a complete radial tear of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus at its root attachment. If left untreated, which of the following biomechanical alterations is most likely to occur in the affected knee compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased peak contact pressure and decreased tibiofemoral contact area
Explanation
A meniscal root tear structurally defunctions the meniscus, preventing it from converting axial loads into hoop stresses. Biomechanically, an unrepaired medial meniscus posterior root tear is equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy. This results in a significantly decreased tibiofemoral contact area and a consequent profound increase in peak contact pressure, predisposing the patient to rapid articular cartilage degeneration and subchondral insufficiency fractures.
Question 4792
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The surgeon plans an open Latarjet procedure. During the transfer of the coracoid process through the split in the subscapularis tendon, which of the following neurologic structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. During a Latarjet procedure, aggressive retraction, mobilization, or inferior placement of the coracoid graft places the musculocutaneous nerve at significant risk. Although the axillary nerve is also at risk inferiorly, the musculocutaneous nerve is the classic nerve at risk during the coracoid mobilization and transfer phase.
Question 4793
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 9-year-old male (Tanner stage 1) sustains a complete midsubstance ACL rupture. The surgeon elects to perform a transphyseal ACL reconstruction using soft tissue autograft.
If the tibial tunnel is inadvertently placed too anteriorly, violating the tibial apophysis, which of the following growth disturbances is most likely to manifest?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Genu recurvatum
Explanation
In skeletally immature patients, the anterior tibial tubercle apophysis contributes to the anterior growth of the proximal tibia. Iatrogenic injury to this anterior structure—such as placing the tibial tunnel too anteriorly or fixing hardware across it—can cause a premature growth arrest of the anterior physis. As the posterior physis continues to grow, it results in a genu recurvatum deformity.
Question 4794
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old professional hockey player undergoes hip arthroscopy for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Preoperative imaging demonstrated a prominent cam lesion with an alpha angle of 72 degrees. The surgeon performs an arthroscopic osteochondroplasty of the femoral head-neck junction. Resection of more than what percentage of the femoral neck diameter substantially increases the risk of a postoperative femoral neck fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30%
Explanation
During osteochondroplasty for a cam deformity in FAI, careful attention must be paid to the depth of resection. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that resecting more than 30% of the anterolateral femoral neck diameter significantly decreases the load to failure, substantially increasing the risk of an iatrogenic femoral neck fracture.
Question 4795
Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. MRI demonstrates a torn medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). She has failed nonoperative management and is scheduled for an MPFL reconstruction.
To achieve isometric graft function, the femoral origin of the MPFL graft should be placed anatomically. Relative to the osseous landmarks on the medial distal femur, the anatomic origin of the MPFL is located:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In the saddle region between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle
Explanation
The anatomic femoral origin of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is located in the saddle-shaped depression between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle. Placement in this exact location (often approximated fluoroscopically by Schöttle's point) is crucial; non-anatomic placement can lead to graft laxity in flexion or excessive tightness causing medial patellofemoral cartilage overload.
Question 4796
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite male volleyball player presents with painless weakness of his dominant shoulder, noting a marked decrease in spiking power. Physical examination reveals normal forward elevation and abduction strength, but isolated profound weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals cystic fluid at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following muscles is expected to show denervation atrophy on electromyography (EMG)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Infraspinatus only
Explanation
A paralabral cyst or entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerveafterit has already given off its motor branch to the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated weakness in external rotation. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch (more proximal) would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 4797
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 19-year-old male soccer player is evaluated for chronic medial knee pain and swelling. MRI and subsequent diagnostic arthroscopy reveal a symptomatic, isolated 3.5 cm squared full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He has no malalignment or ligamentous instability. Which of the following surgical interventions is most likely to provide hyaline-like cartilage repair and is specifically indicated for a defect of this size?
For large full-thickness chondral defects (>2 to 3 cm squared) in young, active patients, cell-based therapies like MACI (or osteochondral allograft) are indicated. They provide a durable, hyaline-like cartilage repair. Microfracture results in structurally inferior fibrocartilage and is best reserved for small lesions (<2 cm squared). OATS is also typically reserved for lesions <2 cm squared due to donor site morbidity. HTO is unwarranted here as the patient has normal alignment.
Question 4798
Topic: Knee Sports
A 26-year-old male presents with lateral knee pain and instability after being tackled directly on the anteromedial aspect of his tibia. Physical examination reveals increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but this asymmetry resolves at 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which of the following structures constitute the primary static stabilizers of the anatomically defined "posterolateral corner" (PLC) that is injured in this scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
A positive dial test at 30 degrees that does not persist at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. (If positive at both 30 and 90, it suggests combined PLC and PCL injuries). The three primary static stabilizers of the PLC are the lateral (fibular) collateral ligament, the popliteus tendon, and the popliteofibular ligament. Anatomic reconstruction of the PLC aims to recreate these three specific structures.
Question 4799
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 19-year-old female collegiate soccer player sustains a noncontact twisting injury to her left knee. MRI demonstrates a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture and a displaced bucket-handle tear of the medial meniscus. During arthroscopy, the medial meniscus is repaired using an all-inside technique. Which of the following factors most significantly increases the healing rate of the repaired medial meniscus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Concomitant ACL reconstruction
Explanation
Concomitant ACL reconstruction is a well-established biological factor that significantly improves the healing rates of meniscal repairs. The hemarthrosis created by drilling the femoral and tibial bone tunnels introduces marrow elements, mesenchymal stem cells, and growth factors into the joint environment, which robustly promotes meniscal healing.
Question 4800
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old professional rugby player presents with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, having sustained 4 dislocations in the past year. Radiographic and CT imaging reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize his risk of recurrence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
Explanation
In a young, contact athlete with critical glenoid bone loss (typically defined as >20-25%) and recurrent instability, the Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard. It provides a 'triple block' effect (bone block, sling effect of the conjoint tendon, and capsular repair). Arthroscopic Bankart repair, even with remplissage, has an unacceptably high failure rate in the setting of critical glenoid bone loss.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.