5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Radiographs and a 3D CT scan demonstrate 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 55-year-old female sustains an acute posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. Biomechanically, if left untreated, this injury most closely approximates the tibiofemoral contact pressures seen in which of the following scenarios?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with persistent deep shoulder pain and mechanical catching. An MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After failing 6 months of physical therapy, operative intervention is selected. Which of the following procedures is most likely to yield the highest patient satisfaction and lowest reoperation rate?

A 28-year-old male sustains a twisting injury to his knee. On physical examination, the Dial test reveals 20 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric rotation is noted at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This finding is most consistent with an isolated injury to the:

A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination demonstrates a 25-degree glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) compared to the contralateral shoulder. The pathophysiology of internal impingement in this athlete most likely involves abnormal contact between the posterosuperior labrum and the:

A 26-year-old male presents with persistent anterior knee pain. Imaging and diagnostic arthroscopy confirm an isolated 3.5 cm^2 symptomatic, full-thickness chondral defect on the medial femoral condyle. He has failed non-operative management. Which of the following cartilage restoration procedures is most appropriate for a lesion of this size?

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals a partial-thickness articular-sided tear of the supraspinatus and posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the most likely pathomechanical cause of this condition?

During a knee arthroscopy, a 30-year-old patient is noted to have a 1.5 cm longitudinal tear in the peripheral red-red zone of the medial meniscus. Which of the following factors most significantly enhances the expected healing rate of a meniscal repair in this patient?

A 19-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 22% anterior glenoid bone loss and a non-engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player suffers an acute Achilles tendon rupture and elects to proceed with nonoperative management utilizing an early functional rehabilitation protocol. Compared to operative management, which of the following is true regarding his chosen treatment?

A 28-year-old motorcyclist sustains a dashboard injury to his knee. The dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 90 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 30 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 42-year-old manual laborer presents with anterior shoulder pain and mechanical catching. MRI reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After 6 months of failed conservative management, he is scheduled for surgery. Based on current literature, what is the most appropriate surgical procedure for this patient?

A 24-year-old gymnast complains of persistent anterolateral ankle pain. MRI demonstrates a 1.2 cm x 1.0 cm osteochondral lesion of the anterolateral talar dome. She has failed 4 months of conservative therapy. What is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention?

A 65-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 60 degrees. Passive elevation is preserved. MRI shows a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 24-year-old male undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Compared to hamstring autograft, BPTB autograft has a higher incidence of which of the following postoperative complications?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of postoperative stiffness and maximize functional return?

A 30-year-old male presents with a multi-ligamentous knee injury following a high-energy trauma. Physical examination reveals an abnormal dial test at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which of the following nerve injuries is most commonly associated with this specific structural injury pattern?

During diagnostic arthroscopy for chronic anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon identifies an impaction fracture of the anteroinferior glenoid rim with an associated disruption of the adjacent articular cartilage and labrum. What is the standard eponymous term for this lesion?

A 42-year-old female experiences a sudden "pop" in her posterior knee while squatting. MRI reveals a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, this injury biomechanically behaves most similarly to which of the following?