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Question 3381

Topic: Knee Sports

A 17-year-old female soccer player sustains a noncontact deceleration injury to her knee, accompanied by a 'pop'.

Which of the following is an established intrinsic skeletal risk factor for this specific ligamentous injury?

. Decreased Q-angle
. Wide intercondylar notch width index
. Increased posterior tibial slope
. Decreased generalized joint laxity
. Decreased femoral anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased posterior tibial slope


Explanation

An increased posterior tibial slope is a well-established bony risk factor for noncontact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears. Other intrinsic risk factors include a narrow intercondylar notch, increased generalized joint laxity, and female gender.

Question 3382

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional tennis player presents with right shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side, alongside normal overall arc of motion. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

. Anterior capsular release
. Arthroscopic superior labral repair
. Sleeper stretch exercises focusing on the posterior capsule
. Posterior capsular plication
. Subacromial corticosteroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sleeper stretch exercises focusing on the posterior capsule


Explanation

GIRD is caused by contracture of the posterior-inferior capsule resulting from repetitive overhead activities. The initial treatment of choice is physical therapy focusing on sleeper stretches to selectively stretch the posterior capsule.

Question 3383

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old male presents with knee pain after a dashboard injury. Physical examination reveals increased external tibial rotation of 15 degrees at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the normal knee. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Isolated posterolateral corner
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner


Explanation

A positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion that corrects at 90 degrees of flexion indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees would indicate a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 3384

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old gymnast presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. An MRI indicates a torn medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). During surgical reconstruction, where should the femoral tunnel be placed anatomically?

. Proximal to the adductor tubercle and anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle and anterior to the adductor tubercle
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and posterior to the adductor tubercle
. Directly on the central aspect of the adductor tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle


Explanation

Schottle's point represents the anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL. It is located in the saddle region distal to the adductor tubercle, proximal to the medial epicondyle, and just posterior to the extension of the posterior femoral cortical line.

Question 3385

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate volleyball player complains of vague, deep posterior shoulder pain.

She has normal strength with shoulder abduction, but notable weakness with external rotation when the arm is positioned at the side. At which anatomic site is the affected nerve most likely compressed?

. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch
. Spiral groove
. Thoracic outlet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Isolated weakness of the infraspinatus (external rotation) with normal supraspinatus function (abduction) points to suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch. This is classic in volleyball players due to repetitive overhead serving or associated paralabral cysts.

Question 3386

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old professional skier sustains a multi-ligamentous knee injury.

During surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC), an anatomic reconstruction technique is chosen. Which three primary structures must be addressed to restore stability to the PLC?

. Fibular collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
. Biceps femoris tendon, popliteus tendon, and lateral collateral ligament
. Iliotibial band, lateral collateral ligament, and popliteofibular ligament
. Fibular collateral ligament, arcuate ligament, and fabellofibular ligament
. Anterolateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibular collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

The three major static stabilizers of the posterolateral corner that require anatomic reconstruction are the fibular (lateral) collateral ligament, the popliteus tendon, and the popliteofibular ligament.

Question 3387

Topic: Knee Sports

Improper tunnel placement is a frequent cause of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction failure. What is the primary kinematic consequence of placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly?

. Loss of knee flexion
. Loss of knee extension
. Increased valgus instability
. Patella baja
. Normal kinematics but delayed graft incorporation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of knee flexion


Explanation

Placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly results in excessive tension on the graft as the knee flexes. This abnormal tension leads to restriction in knee flexion and potentially early graft failure.

Question 3388

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old active male presents with acute posterior knee pain and a palpable 'pop' while deep squatting. MRI reveals a complete medial meniscus posterior root tear. Left untreated, the biomechanical consequences of this injury are most equivalent to which of the following?

. Total meniscectomy
. Isolated ACL deficiency
. Isolated PCL deficiency
. Patellofemoral maltracking
. Posterolateral corner deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete medial meniscus root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion. Biomechanically, this is equivalent to a total meniscectomy and rapidly accelerates tibiofemoral cartilage degeneration.

Question 3389

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 25% glenoid bone loss. Which surgical procedure is most indicated?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Subscapularis advancement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Critical glenoid bone loss is generally defined as >20-25% of the anterior glenoid. In these cases, soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has unacceptably high failure rates, and a bone block augmentation such as the Latarjet procedure is indicated.

Question 3390

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 28-year-old is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a dashboard injury. Examination and MRI confirm an isolated Grade II Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear. What is the recommended initial management?

. Immediate surgical reconstruction
. Relative immobilization in extension followed by quadriceps strengthening
. Immobilization in deep flexion followed by hamstring strengthening
. Diagnostic arthroscopy with meniscal debridement
. High tibial osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Relative immobilization in extension followed by quadriceps strengthening


Explanation

Isolated Grade I and II PCL tears are treated nonoperatively. Initial management focuses on reducing posterior tibial sag (often with a brace in extension) and aggressively strengthening the quadriceps to counteract posterior tibial translation.

Question 3391

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After confirming a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD), what is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Biceps tenodesis
. Biceps tenotomy
. Physical therapy focusing on posterior capsular stretching
. Open anterior capsulolabral reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physical therapy focusing on posterior capsular stretching


Explanation

Overhead athletes with Type II SLAP tears and GIRD should undergo a trial of physical therapy focusing on stretching the contracted posterior capsule (sleeper stretches). Surgical repair is reserved for those who fail prolonged conservative management.

Question 3392

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old gymnast presents with persistent medial ankle pain after an inversion injury 6 months ago. MRI reveals a 12 mm osteochondral lesion of the medial talar dome with intact overlying cartilage. If a 3-month trial of immobilization and non-weight bearing fails, what is the best initial surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Matrix-induced autologous chondrocyte implantation (MACI)
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the fragment
. Ankle arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)


Explanation

For primary osteochondral lesions of the talus that are < 1.5 cm^2, arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture or drilling) is the recommended first-line surgical treatment. Larger or cystic lesions may require structural grafting (OATS/allograft).

Question 3393

Topic: Knee Sports

The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) provides the primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation at which range of knee flexion?

. 0 to 30 degrees
. 30 to 60 degrees
. 60 to 90 degrees
. 90 to 120 degrees
. Beyond 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 0 to 30 degrees


Explanation

The MPFL is the primary restraint to lateral patellar translation in early flexion (0 to 30 degrees). Beyond 30 degrees, the patella engages the trochlear groove, and bony architecture provides the primary stability.

Question 3394

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 14-year-old boy presents with anterior knee pain and catching. Imaging shows an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. MRI indicates fluid tracking behind the lesion, suggesting instability. His physes remain open. What is the most appropriate management?

. Strict non-weight bearing for 3 months
. Arthroscopic drilling and fixation of the lesion
. Osteochondral autograft transfer
. Microfracture of the defect
. Partial meniscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic drilling and fixation of the lesion


Explanation

While stable OCD lesions in patients with open physes are typically treated nonoperatively, an unstable lesion (indicated by fluid behind the fragment) requires surgical intervention. Arthroscopic fixation is the treatment of choice to preserve the native cartilage.

Question 3395

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An elite overhead throwing athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase. Which combination of intra-articular pathology is most characteristic of internal impingement?

. Anterior-inferior labral tear and subscapularis tear
. Posterosuperior labral fraying and undersurface tearing of the posterior supraspinatus/anterior infraspinatus
. SLAP tear and biceps subluxation
. Subacromial bursitis and bursal-sided rotator cuff tears
. Adhesive capsulitis and glenohumeral arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterosuperior labral fraying and undersurface tearing of the posterior supraspinatus/anterior infraspinatus


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in maximum abduction and external rotation, causing the undersurface of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus to impinge against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum, leading to fraying and partial tearing of both structures.

Question 3396

Topic: Knee Sports

A rugby player is tackled with a blow to the anteromedial tibia. Exam reveals increased varus laxity at 30 degrees of knee flexion but normal varus stability at 0 degrees. The dial test shows increased external rotation at 30 degrees, but it is symmetric to the contralateral side at 90 degrees. Which structures are most likely injured?

. Isolated Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL)
. LCL and Popliteofibular ligament
. LCL, Popliteofibular ligament, and PCL
. ACL and PCL
. Isolated PCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. LCL and Popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

Increased varus laxity at 30 degrees (but normal at 0) and a positive dial test at 30 degrees (but normal at 90) indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The LCL and popliteofibular ligament are key PLC structures; the intact PCL normalizes the dial test at 90 degrees.

Question 3397

Topic: Knee Sports

A 27-year-old male presents to the ER following a traumatic knee dislocation during a football game. The knee spontaneously reduced prior to arrival. An ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated to be 0.8. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

. Immediate open surgical exploration of the popliteal artery
. CT angiography of the affected extremity
. Observation and repeat ABI in 4 hours
. Application of a hinged knee brace locked in extension
. Immediate ACL and PCL reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT angiography of the affected extremity


Explanation

An ABI < 0.9 after a knee dislocation is highly suspicious for a vascular injury, most commonly the popliteal artery. CT angiography or standard arteriography is mandatory to evaluate for vascular compromise before considering surgery or simple observation.

Question 3398

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation.

MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle would exhibit isolated weakness on clinical exam?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the distal nerve, causing isolated infraspinatus atrophy and external rotation weakness.

Question 3399

Topic: Knee Sports

A 21-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. An axial CT scan measures a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 24 mm. Which procedure should be included in her definitive surgical plan to correct this specific pathomechanics?

. Isolated MPFL reconstruction
. Lateral retinacular release alone
. Tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy
. Tibial tubercle lateralization osteotomy
. Isolated trochleoplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy


Explanation

A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is considered pathologic and predisposes to lateral patellar instability. A tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy is indicated to correct the abnormal extensor mechanism vector, often combined with an MPFL reconstruction.

Question 3400

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 17-year-old female high school soccer player is scheduled to undergo an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. When discussing graft choices, which of the following is associated with the highest rate of clinical failure and need for revision in this specific patient demographic?

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft
. Quadrupled hamstring autograft
. Quadriceps tendon autograft
. Tibialis anterior allograft
. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft with lateral extra-articular tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft


Explanation

Both irradiated and non-irradiated allografts have a significantly higher failure rate compared to autografts in young, highly active patients. Autologous tissue remains the gold standard for ACL reconstruction in patients under 20 years of age.