This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3381
Topic: Knee Sports
A 17-year-old female soccer player sustains a noncontact deceleration injury to her knee, accompanied by a 'pop'.
Which of the following is an established intrinsic skeletal risk factor for this specific ligamentous injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased posterior tibial slope
Explanation
An increased posterior tibial slope is a well-established bony risk factor for noncontact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears. Other intrinsic risk factors include a narrow intercondylar notch, increased generalized joint laxity, and female gender.
Question 3382
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional tennis player presents with right shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side, alongside normal overall arc of motion. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sleeper stretch exercises focusing on the posterior capsule
Explanation
GIRD is caused by contracture of the posterior-inferior capsule resulting from repetitive overhead activities. The initial treatment of choice is physical therapy focusing on sleeper stretches to selectively stretch the posterior capsule.
Question 3383
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male presents with knee pain after a dashboard injury. Physical examination reveals increased external tibial rotation of 15 degrees at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the normal knee. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner
Explanation
A positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion that corrects at 90 degrees of flexion indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees would indicate a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 3384
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old gymnast presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. An MRI indicates a torn medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). During surgical reconstruction, where should the femoral tunnel be placed anatomically?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
Explanation
Schottle's point represents the anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL. It is located in the saddle region distal to the adductor tubercle, proximal to the medial epicondyle, and just posterior to the extension of the posterior femoral cortical line.
Question 3385
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate volleyball player complains of vague, deep posterior shoulder pain.
She has normal strength with shoulder abduction, but notable weakness with external rotation when the arm is positioned at the side. At which anatomic site is the affected nerve most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Isolated weakness of the infraspinatus (external rotation) with normal supraspinatus function (abduction) points to suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch. This is classic in volleyball players due to repetitive overhead serving or associated paralabral cysts.
Question 3386
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old professional skier sustains a multi-ligamentous knee injury.
During surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC), an anatomic reconstruction technique is chosen. Which three primary structures must be addressed to restore stability to the PLC?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibular collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
The three major static stabilizers of the posterolateral corner that require anatomic reconstruction are the fibular (lateral) collateral ligament, the popliteus tendon, and the popliteofibular ligament.
Question 3387
Topic: Knee Sports
Improper tunnel placement is a frequent cause of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction failure. What is the primary kinematic consequence of placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of knee flexion
Explanation
Placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly results in excessive tension on the graft as the knee flexes. This abnormal tension leads to restriction in knee flexion and potentially early graft failure.
Question 3388
Topic: Knee Sports
A 45-year-old active male presents with acute posterior knee pain and a palpable 'pop' while deep squatting. MRI reveals a complete medial meniscus posterior root tear. Left untreated, the biomechanical consequences of this injury are most equivalent to which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total meniscectomy
Explanation
A complete medial meniscus root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion. Biomechanically, this is equivalent to a total meniscectomy and rapidly accelerates tibiofemoral cartilage degeneration.
Question 3389
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 25% glenoid bone loss. Which surgical procedure is most indicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
Critical glenoid bone loss is generally defined as >20-25% of the anterior glenoid. In these cases, soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has unacceptably high failure rates, and a bone block augmentation such as the Latarjet procedure is indicated.
Question 3390
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 28-year-old is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a dashboard injury. Examination and MRI confirm an isolated Grade II Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear. What is the recommended initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Relative immobilization in extension followed by quadriceps strengthening
Explanation
Isolated Grade I and II PCL tears are treated nonoperatively. Initial management focuses on reducing posterior tibial sag (often with a brace in extension) and aggressively strengthening the quadriceps to counteract posterior tibial translation.
Question 3391
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After confirming a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD), what is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Physical therapy focusing on posterior capsular stretching
Explanation
Overhead athletes with Type II SLAP tears and GIRD should undergo a trial of physical therapy focusing on stretching the contracted posterior capsule (sleeper stretches). Surgical repair is reserved for those who fail prolonged conservative management.
Question 3392
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 19-year-old gymnast presents with persistent medial ankle pain after an inversion injury 6 months ago. MRI reveals a 12 mm osteochondral lesion of the medial talar dome with intact overlying cartilage. If a 3-month trial of immobilization and non-weight bearing fails, what is the best initial surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
Explanation
For primary osteochondral lesions of the talus that are < 1.5 cm^2, arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture or drilling) is the recommended first-line surgical treatment. Larger or cystic lesions may require structural grafting (OATS/allograft).
Question 3393
Topic: Knee Sports
The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) provides the primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation at which range of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 0 to 30 degrees
Explanation
The MPFL is the primary restraint to lateral patellar translation in early flexion (0 to 30 degrees). Beyond 30 degrees, the patella engages the trochlear groove, and bony architecture provides the primary stability.
Question 3394
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 14-year-old boy presents with anterior knee pain and catching. Imaging shows an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. MRI indicates fluid tracking behind the lesion, suggesting instability. His physes remain open. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic drilling and fixation of the lesion
Explanation
While stable OCD lesions in patients with open physes are typically treated nonoperatively, an unstable lesion (indicated by fluid behind the fragment) requires surgical intervention. Arthroscopic fixation is the treatment of choice to preserve the native cartilage.
Question 3395
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An elite overhead throwing athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase. Which combination of intra-articular pathology is most characteristic of internal impingement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterosuperior labral fraying and undersurface tearing of the posterior supraspinatus/anterior infraspinatus
Explanation
Internal impingement occurs in maximum abduction and external rotation, causing the undersurface of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus to impinge against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum, leading to fraying and partial tearing of both structures.
Question 3396
Topic: Knee Sports
A rugby player is tackled with a blow to the anteromedial tibia. Exam reveals increased varus laxity at 30 degrees of knee flexion but normal varus stability at 0 degrees. The dial test shows increased external rotation at 30 degrees, but it is symmetric to the contralateral side at 90 degrees. Which structures are most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. LCL and Popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
Increased varus laxity at 30 degrees (but normal at 0) and a positive dial test at 30 degrees (but normal at 90) indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The LCL and popliteofibular ligament are key PLC structures; the intact PCL normalizes the dial test at 90 degrees.
Question 3397
Topic: Knee Sports
A 27-year-old male presents to the ER following a traumatic knee dislocation during a football game. The knee spontaneously reduced prior to arrival. An ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated to be 0.8. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CT angiography of the affected extremity
Explanation
An ABI < 0.9 after a knee dislocation is highly suspicious for a vascular injury, most commonly the popliteal artery. CT angiography or standard arteriography is mandatory to evaluate for vascular compromise before considering surgery or simple observation.
Question 3398
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 26-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation.
MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle would exhibit isolated weakness on clinical exam?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Infraspinatus
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the distal nerve, causing isolated infraspinatus atrophy and external rotation weakness.
Question 3399
Topic: Knee Sports
A 21-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. An axial CT scan measures a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 24 mm. Which procedure should be included in her definitive surgical plan to correct this specific pathomechanics?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy
Explanation
A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is considered pathologic and predisposes to lateral patellar instability. A tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy is indicated to correct the abnormal extensor mechanism vector, often combined with an MPFL reconstruction.
Question 3400
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 17-year-old female high school soccer player is scheduled to undergo an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. When discussing graft choices, which of the following is associated with the highest rate of clinical failure and need for revision in this specific patient demographic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft
Explanation
Both irradiated and non-irradiated allografts have a significantly higher failure rate compared to autografts in young, highly active patients. Autologous tissue remains the gold standard for ACL reconstruction in patients under 20 years of age.
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