5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 38-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT scan confirms an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT imaging demonstrates a 30% anterior glenoid bone defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 34-year-old male presents to the ER after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation. A modified axillary radiograph reveals a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 30% of the articular surface. Which procedure is most appropriate?

A 40-year-old male presents with an unprovoked seizure resulting in a right posterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI reveals a 25% bony Bankart lesion of the anterior glenoid.

Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable long-term stability for this patient?

A 48-year-old manual laborer sustains a Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management fails. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment to minimize postoperative stiffness and allow a predictable return to work?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability after a primary traumatic dislocation. A 3D-CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain following a fall. Physical examination reveals a positive lift-off test, a positive belly-press test, and passively increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 13-year-old male gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain and clicking. MRI demonstrates osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum with an unstable, detached osteochondral fragment resting in situ. What is the most appropriate management?

A 45-year-old construction worker with chronic anterior shoulder pain exhibits a positive Speed's test. MRI reveals a Type II SLAP lesion with significant macroscopic degeneration of the biceps anchor. What is the most reliable surgical option?

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative 3D CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures provides the most reliable long-term stability?

During arthroscopic repair of a posterior SLAP tear, the surgeon must be cautious when placing suture anchors or drilling into the posterior glenoid neck. Penetrating the posterior glenoid neck medially by more than what distance puts the suprascapular nerve at significant risk?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan of the shoulder reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. The surgeon plans a Latarjet procedure. This procedure provides dynamic anterior stability through a 'sling effect' primarily involving the interaction between the lower subscapularis and which of the following structures?

Which of the following bone graft substitutes possesses osteoconductive and osteoinductive properties, but entirely lacks osteogenic potential?

Which of the following bone graft options possesses all three essential properties for bone healing: osteoconduction, osteoinduction, and osteogenesis?

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two main functional bundles. During deep knee flexion, which bundle is under the most tension, and what is its primary biomechanical role?

The posteromedial approach to the knee is often utilized for repairing tibial avulsions of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) or accessing the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. This approach develops an interval between which of the following muscle bellies?

When establishing a posterolateral portal during knee arthroscopy, the surgeon makes an incision posterior to the fibular collateral ligament. The incision must remain strictly anterior to the biceps femoris tendon and superior to the fibular head to prevent injury to which structure?