5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 50-year-old male sustains a proximal-third humeral shaft fracture. The proximal fragment is abducted and externally rotated, while the distal fragment is displaced proximally and medially. Which muscle is primarily responsible for the medial displacement of the distal fragment?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 30% anteroinferior glenoid bone defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 19-year-old collegiate rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes imaging, which demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 32-year-old male weightlifter feels a pop in his anterior chest while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals an asymmetric chest wall and weakness with internal rotation. MRI confirms a complete tear of the pectoralis major tendon at its insertion. What is the recommended management?

A 20-year-old football player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging demonstrates a 15% glenoid bone loss combined with a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

A 30-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral ganglion cyst. At what precise anatomic location is this cyst most likely compressing the affected nerve?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he presents with weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination, as well as numbness over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability is found to have 25% anterior glenoid bone loss on a 3D CT scan. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 32-year-old patient reports progressively increasing pain and stiffness after undergoing arthroscopic shoulder stabilization 1 year ago. The stabilization procedure was a Bankart repair with anchor fixation and supplemented with the heat probe. Radiographs are shown in Figures 45a and 45b. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old athlete sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. During preoperative planning, an 'engaging' Hill-Sachs lesion is identified. Which of the following defines an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion?

A 72-year-old male presents with profound weakness in external rotation and abduction three weeks after successful closed reduction of an anterior shoulder dislocation. Electromyography reveals normal axillary nerve function. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old male construction worker presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. He had a prior SLAP repair 20 years ago. An MRI demonstrates a failed Type II SLAP repair and advanced biceps tendinopathy. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and 25% glenoid bone loss undergoes a Latarjet procedure. During the coracoid transfer, the musculocutaneous nerve must be identified and protected. What is its approximate distance from the tip of the coracoid process?

A 26-year-old elite volleyball attacker complains of chronic posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation are full and 5/5 in strength. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which anatomic location is the nerve compression most likely occurring?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with anterior shoulder pain. Physical examination of his throwing shoulder reveals 25 degrees less internal rotation compared to his non-throwing shoulder, but his total arc of motion is symmetric. What is the primary underlying anatomic pathology associated with this condition?

A 30-year-old volleyball player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing the nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle(s) will most likely demonstrate denervation changes on electromyography (EMG)?

A 28-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side, but normal forward elevation and internal rotation. MRI shows a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following labral pathologies is most commonly associated with this finding?

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a first-time generalized seizure. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 25% of the articular surface. The shoulder is unstable in internal rotation after closed reduction. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 40-year-old man presents with severe shoulder pain and limited external rotation after a seizure. Radiographs demonstrate a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

Six months after undergoing volar locked plating for a distal radius fracture, a 55-year-old woman presents with an inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. What is the most likely cause of this complication?