Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player complains of persistent anterior shoulder pain that is exacerbated by overhead activities. An MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated type II superior labrum anterior and posterior (SLAP) tear. He has failed 6 months of comprehensive nonoperative management. In this age group, which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable patient-reported outcomes and the lowest revision rate?

A 60-year-old man with a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear is being evaluated for a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. Which of the following conditions is considered an absolute contraindication to performing this procedure?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and subjective weakness. Clinical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with preserved bulk of the supraspinatus. Overhead external rotation strength is decreased. An MRI is obtained. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following 4 traumatic dislocations. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrence?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his third anterior shoulder dislocation this season. Advanced imaging shows a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management to prevent recurrent instability and allow a return to contact sports?

A 28-year-old male bodybuilder reports vague, deep posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. He denies any history of trauma. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal bulk of the supraspinatus. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI of the shoulder is most likely to show which of the following?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with an insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. Clinical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with a normal bulk and strength of the supraspinatus.

The most likely site of nerve compression is the:

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague anterior shoulder pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Examination shows a 25-degree loss of internal rotation and a 15-degree gain in external rotation in the symptomatic shoulder compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following pathological changes is most closely associated with the development of this specific glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic, severe right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 40 degrees. He has a positive drop sign and a positive hornblower's sign. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear with Goutallier grade 4 fatty infiltration. The subscapularis tendon is completely intact. After failure of conservative management, what is the most appropriate surgical tendon transfer to restore active external rotation and function in this patient?

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with an 8-month history of deep, aching posterior shoulder pain and a noted decrease in serving velocity. Physical examination reveals noticeable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa appears completely normal. She demonstrates 5/5 strength in forward elevation but 3/5 strength in external rotation with the arm resting at her side. What is the most likely anatomic location of the neural compression?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 45-year-old manual laborer undergoes arthroscopic evaluation for a type II SLAP tear. He also has a full-thickness supraspinatus tear. What is the most appropriate management of the biceps labral complex in this patient demographic?

A 20-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. A Latarjet procedure is planned. Which nerve is at greatest risk during the coracoid transfer?

A 55-year-old male presents with severe anterior shoulder pain and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. He exhibits a positive lift-off test and belly-press test. If this patient undergoes arthroscopy, what is the most likely associated pathology found in conjunction with his primary tendon injury?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral shoulder. What is the primary underlying pathophysiology driving this specific impingement pattern?

A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation and he cannot actively or passively externally rotate. An axillary radiograph confirms a posterior glenohumeral dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 30% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 26-year-old competitive volleyball player undergoes arthroscopic repair of a posterior labral tear. The surgeon places suture anchors extensively along the posteroinferior and posterosuperior glenoid rim. Postoperatively, the patient experiences isolated, profound weakness in external rotation despite a pain-free joint. What is the most likely iatrogenic cause of this complication?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located to produce these exact findings?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The surgeon notes a Bankart lesion and an "engaging" Hill-Sachs lesion that drops over the anterior glenoid rim in abduction and external rotation. Assuming no significant glenoid bone loss, what adjunctive soft-tissue procedure should be performed alongside the Bankart repair?

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which nerve is at the greatest risk of injury during the mobilization and transfer of the conjoined tendon?