This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1761
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 72-year-old woman sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture after a ground-level fall. Nonoperative management is initiated. During her first follow-up visit, she is found to have weakness with shoulder abduction and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of her shoulder. Which of the following muscles shares its innervation with the muscle primarily affected by this neurological injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor
Explanation
The patient exhibits classic signs of an axillary nerve palsy (deltoid weakness limiting abduction, and numbness over the lateral shoulder or 'regimental badge' area). The axillary nerve, a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, innervates both the deltoid and the teres minor. The teres major is innervated by the lower subscapular nerve, while supraspinatus and infraspinatus are innervated by the suprascapular nerve.
Question 1762
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 68-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 40 degrees. Passive elevation is preserved to 160 degrees. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 4), while the subscapularis and teres minor are intact. What is the most reliable surgical option to restore active forward elevation in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA)
Explanation
The patient presents with pseudoparalysis of elevation secondary to a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. In elderly patients with pseudoparalysis and advanced fatty infiltration, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) provides the most reliable restoration of active elevation by medializing the center of rotation and maximizing the deltoid moment arm. Tendon transfers and SCR are generally less reliable for reversing true pseudoparalysis.
Question 1763
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old overhead athlete complains of poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid. MRI of the shoulder reveals isolated atrophy and fatty infiltration of the teres minor muscle. Which of the following anatomic structures form the borders of the space where the affected nerve is likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor, teres major, long head of triceps, and surgical neck of the humerus
Explanation
The clinical presentation and MRI findings (isolated teres minor atrophy) are classic for Quadrilateral Space Syndrome. This syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery. The anatomical boundaries of the quadrilateral space are the teres minor (superiorly), teres major (inferiorly), long head of the triceps (medially), and the surgical neck of the humerus (laterally). Compression in this space typically leads to lateral deltoid paresthesias and selective denervation of the teres minor and/or deltoid.
Question 1764
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with overhead serving. Physical examination reveals atrophy of the infraspinatus but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. There is notable weakness in external rotation but normal abduction. An MRI shows a paralabral cyst. In which of the following anatomic locations is the cyst most likely compressing the involved nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. It passes through the suprascapular notch (where compression affects both muscles) and then winds around the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch, often by a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear, results in isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation, while the supraspinatus remains spared.
Question 1765
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic, intractable posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation. He has a positive Hornblower's sign and a positive dropping sign. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted, and irreparably atrophic tear of the infraspinatus and teres minor, with an intact subscapularis. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore external rotation in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower trapezius transfer
Explanation
This patient has an isolated loss of active external rotation due to irreparable tears of the infraspinatus and teres minor. The lower trapezius transfer is highly effective for restoring external rotation in this setting because the line of pull of the lower trapezius closely replicates the vector of the infraspinatus. While the latissimus dorsi transfer is used for massive posterosuperior tears, its vector is less ideal for isolated external rotation compared to the lower trapezius. Pectoralis major transfers are used for irreparable subscapularis tears.
Question 1766
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with normal bulk of the supraspinatus. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. At which anatomic location is the nerve compression most likely occurring?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch, often due to a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior SLAP tear in overhead athletes, affects only the distal infraspinatus branch, leading to isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation.
Question 1767
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old man presents with a history of sudden, severe, unremitting right shoulder pain lasting for 2 weeks that woke him from sleep. The pain has now largely resolved, but he has noticed profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. There is no history of trauma. EMG at 4 weeks reveals acute denervation changes in the supraspinatus and deltoid. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome; physical therapy and observation
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) typically presents with acute, severe shoulder pain that lasts for 1-3 weeks. As the pain subsides, profound weakness and muscle atrophy (commonly affecting the deltoid, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus) become evident. It is typically a self-limiting condition, and the initial management consists of pain control, physical therapy, and observation.
Question 1768
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old elite volleyball attacker complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and painless weakness over the past 6 months. Physical examination reveals notable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. She has full strength in shoulder abduction but 3/5 strength in external rotation with the arm at the side. An MRI is obtained, demonstrating a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located and which nerve is affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch; suprascapular nerve
Explanation
Isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy strongly suggest entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. In athletes, particularly overhead throwers and volleyball players, this is often due to a paralabral cyst associated with a posterosuperior labral tear. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch, which is more proximal, would typically denervate both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.
Question 1769
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 26-year-old professional baseball pitcher undergoes shoulder arthroscopy for a Type II SLAP tear. During dynamic intraoperative testing, the surgeon observes a 'peel-back' mechanism of the superior labrum when the arm is placed in the late-cocking position (abduction and external rotation). This biomechanical phenomenon most directly leads to which of the following secondary shoulder pathologies in overhead athletes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal impingement resulting in articular-sided posterosuperior rotator cuff tears
Explanation
In the overhead throwing athlete, placing the arm in abduction and maximal external rotation (the late cocking phase) shifts the biceps vector posteriorly, creating a 'peel-back' torsional force on the superior labrum. A Type II SLAP tear allows increased posterosuperior translation of the humeral head and increased external rotation. This kinematics shift leads to internal impingement, where the articular surface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) abuts the posterosuperior glenoid labrum, frequently leading to articular-sided 'kissing' lesions of the rotator cuff.
Question 1770
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional tennis player presents with posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. An MRI of the shoulder reveals a multi-lobulated paralabral cyst located strictly within the spinoglenoid notch. Based on this isolated compression, which of the following clinical findings would most likely be observed on physical examination?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve supplies motor innervation to the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression of the nerve at the spinoglenoid notch (often caused by a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear) results in isolated denervation, weakness, and subsequent atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 1771
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 68-year-old woman presents with persistent shoulder pain and pseudoparalysis. MRI reveals a massive rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Which of the following MRI findings is the strongest contraindication to a primary arthroscopic repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Goutallier stage 3 or 4 fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus muscle
Explanation
Goutallier stage 3 or 4 fatty infiltration represents irreversible muscle degeneration. It strongly correlates with poor functional outcomes and high retear rates following rotator cuff repair, making it a major contraindication to primary arthroscopic repair.
Question 1772
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old elite collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing.
Physical examination reveals a loss of 25 degrees of internal rotation in the throwing arm compared to the contralateral side. He has a positive apprehension test that is relieved by a relocation maneuver. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology of his pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL)
Explanation
The athlete presents with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) and signs of internal impingement. Repetitive throwing leads to contracture of the posterior capsule and the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL). This results in a posterosuperior shift of the glenohumeral contact point during maximum external rotation and abduction (late cocking phase), causing impingement of the undersurface of the rotator cuff and superior labrum between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid.
Question 1773
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. An MRI (Figure 4) demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Weakness of external rotation with isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve distal to the motor branches supplying the supraspinatus. Consequently, it causes isolated denervation of the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated weakness in external rotation and infraspinatus atrophy. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch (more proximally) would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 1774
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 60-year-old man undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair. A Popeye deformity is a known potential outcome of biceps tenotomy. Compared to arthroscopic biceps tenodesis, which of the following is true regarding biceps tenotomy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It leads to a higher incidence of cramping pain in the biceps muscle belly
Explanation
Biceps tenotomy and tenodesis both provide excellent pain relief for pathology of the long head of the biceps. Tenotomy is associated with a higher incidence of the 'Popeye' deformity and subjective cramping pain in the biceps muscle belly compared to tenodesis. However, there are no significant differences in functional outcome scores, overall patient satisfaction, elbow flexion, supination strength, or rotator cuff healing rates.
Question 1775
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague, deep-seated posterior shoulder pain and weakness with overhead activities. Examination demonstrates marked atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk and tone of the supraspinatus. Significant weakness is noted in external rotation with the arm at the side, but abduction strength is symmetrically intact. MRI of the shoulder reveals a paralabral cyst. Based on the physical examination, where is the cyst most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The clinical presentation is classic for suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch. The suprascapular nerve provides motor innervation to the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch (proximal) would result in atrophy and weakness of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch (distal) affects only the infraspinatus, presenting as isolated external rotation weakness and isolated infraspinatus atrophy. Paralabral cysts in this location are frequently associated with posterior or SLAP labral tears.
Question 1776
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old construction worker presents with a symptomatic type II SLAP tear and biceps tendinopathy. He undergoes arthroscopic biceps tenodesis. Compared to biceps tenotomy, which of the following is a recognized advantage of biceps tenodesis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased incidence of cosmetic "Popeye" deformity
Explanation
Biceps tenodesis and tenotomy are both accepted treatments for long head of the biceps pathology. Tenodesis maintains the length-tension relationship of the muscle, which theoretically preserves supination strength and significantly decreases the incidence of a cosmetic "Popeye" deformity compared to tenotomy. However, tenotomy typically requires a shorter operative time, allows a faster return to unrestricted activities, and carries a lower risk of postoperative stiffness.
Question 1777
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player complains of insidious, deep posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. Clinical examination shows isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression. Based on the examination findings, where is the cyst most likely located and what is the typical associated labral pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch; posterosuperior labral tear
Explanation
The patient has isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy, which localizes the suprascapular nerve compression to the spinoglenoid notch (after the nerve has already given off its motor branches to the supraspinatus muscle at the suprascapular notch). Paralabral cysts at the spinoglenoid notch are strongly associated with posterosuperior labral tears or posterior SLAP lesions. A cyst at the suprascapular notch would typically cause weakness of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 1778
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with normal bulk of the supraspinatus. Weakness is noted exclusively with external rotation. Where is the most likely location of nerve entrapment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles, leading to weakness in abduction and external rotation. However, entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch occurs after the nerve has already given off its motor branches to the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle, causing weakness exclusively in external rotation. This condition is frequently seen in overhead athletes and is often associated with paralabral cysts arising from posterior labral tears.
Question 1779
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. She denies any shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals obvious atrophy of the infraspinatus, but supraspinatus strength and muscle bulk are normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve supplies both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. It passes first through the suprascapular notch (innervating the supraspinatus) and then continues through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy indicate compression at the spinoglenoid notch, frequently due to a paralabral cyst associated with superior labral tears in overhead athletes.
Question 1780
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 38-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of excruciating right shoulder pain that began 3 weeks ago without any antecedent trauma. The severe pain has now largely subsided, but he reports profound weakness in his shoulder. Physical examination reveals noticeable atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, with significant weakness in external rotation and forward elevation. An MRI of the cervical spine and shoulder shows no structural pathology or compressive lesions. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation, physical therapy, and supportive care
Explanation
The clinical presentation of acute, severe shoulder pain followed by profound weakness and atrophy as the pain subsides is the classic presentation for Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis or neuralgic amyotrophy). The condition is primarily self-limiting, and the mainstay of treatment is supportive care and physical therapy to maintain range of motion and strengthen the shoulder girdle.
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