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Question 161

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 50-year-old male presents with acute shoulder pain and weakness after attempting to catch a falling heavy box.

Physical examination reveals a positive Bear-Hug test. Which of the following muscles is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Biceps brachii

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

The Bear-Hug test is a highly sensitive and specific clinical examination maneuver used to assess the integrity of the subscapularis muscle. Weakness in internal rotation with the hand resting on the opposite shoulder indicates a tear.

Question 162

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% bone loss of the anteroinferior glenoid. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent dislocation?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Open Bankart repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated for anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%). It provides stability via a 'triple effect': bone augmentation, the sling effect of the conjoined tendon, and capsular repair.

Question 163

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals profound weakness in external rotation, but normal forward elevation and abduction. An MRI shows an isolated paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which nerve is compressed, and which muscle is consequently affected?

. Axillary nerve; teres minor
. Suprascapular nerve; supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Suprascapular nerve; infraspinatus only
. Spinal accessory nerve; trapezius
. Long thoracic nerve; serratus anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve; infraspinatus only


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated weakness in external rotation. Compression at the suprascapular notch (more proximal) would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 164

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain and clicking. An MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior and Posterior) tear. After 6 months of failed physical therapy, surgery is planned. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this patient?

. SLAP repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic debridement of the superior labrum
. Coracoid transfer
. Open anterior capsular shift
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In patients older than 40 with symptomatic Type II SLAP tears, biceps tenodesis yields superior clinical outcomes and a lower complication rate compared to SLAP repair. SLAP repairs in this age group are associated with high rates of postoperative stiffness and persistent pain.

Question 165

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan reveals a 25 percent defect of the anterior glenoid rim. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure to restore lasting stability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular shift
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Critical glenoid bone loss in the setting of anterior instability is generally considered to be greater than 20 to 25 percent. An open Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated to restore the articular arc and provide a dynamic sling effect.

Question 166

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 48-year-old construction worker presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by heavy lifting. MRI arthrogram shows a Type II SLAP tear. Six months of physical therapy has failed to provide relief. What is the surgical treatment of choice?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair with suture anchors
. Biceps tenotomy and debridement of the labrum
. Biceps tenodesis
. Coracoclavicular ligament reconstruction
. Subpectoral biceps tenotomy without tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In older or non-overhead athletic patients, biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and a lower complication rate compared to SLAP repair for Type II SLAP lesions. SLAP repairs in this demographic are highly associated with postoperative stiffness.

Question 167

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Three-dimensional CT reveals 28% glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize recurrence?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In collision athletes with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), isolated arthroscopic Bankart repairs have unacceptably high failure rates. A coracoid transfer (Latarjet) reconstructs the bone defect and provides a dynamic soft-tissue sling.

Question 168

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 13-year-old obese boy undergoes in situ percutaneous single-screw fixation for a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following represents the most significant long-term clinical complication directly associated with the residual deformity from this condition?

. Chondrolysis
. Avascular necrosis
. Femoroacetabular impingement
. Subtrochanteric femur fracture
. Premature closure of the triradiate cartilage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoroacetabular impingement


Explanation

Even after successful in situ fixation of a SCFE, the residual proximal femoral deformity (a prominent anterolateral metaphysis) frequently leads to cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Over time, this impingement causes labral tearing and early secondary hip osteoarthritis.

Question 169

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 68-year-old female undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture with a locking plate. Six months postoperatively, she complains of persistent shoulder pain and impingement, particularly with overhead activities. Clinical examination and radiographs confirm hardware prominence at the superior aspect of the greater tuberosity. Which factor is most commonly implicated in this complication?

. Excessive screw length causing penetration of the articular surface.
. Over-tightening of the locking screws, leading to plate deformation.
. Improper plate contouring, especially at the superior aspect of the greater tuberosity.
. Inadequate number of screws used in the humeral head, leading to construct failure.
. Placement of the plate too far anterior on the humeral shaft.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Improper plate contouring, especially at the superior aspect of the greater tuberosity.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CHardware prominence, particularly at the superior aspect of the greater tuberosity, is a common complication with proximal humerus locking plates. This often occurs if the plate is positioned too high on the humeral head or if its contour does not precisely match the complex anatomy of the proximal humerus. This prominence can lead to irritation or impingement of the deltoid or rotator cuff tendons (especially the supraspinatus) against the acromion, causing pain and limiting range of motion. While articular screw penetration (Option A) is also a serious complication, plate prominence causing impingement is frequently observed due to the plate's position relative to the surrounding soft tissues and acromion. Over-tightening of locking screws (Option B) is not typically an issue due to the fixed-angle nature, and screw number (Option D) relates to stability, not impingement. Anterior plate placement (Option E) can cause other issues but not typically superior impingement.

Question 170

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 50-year-old patient presents with acute shoulder pain after a seizure. On examination, the arm is held in internal rotation, and the anterior shoulder appears flattened. External rotation is severely restricted. Which radiographic finding on an AP shoulder view is pathognomonic for a posterior shoulder dislocation?

. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Bankart lesion
. Trough line sign
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligaments (HAGL) lesion
. Os acromiale

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trough line sign


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe Trough line sign (or reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) is an impaction fracture on the anterior-medial aspect of the humeral head, often seen with posterior dislocations. The other options are incorrect: Hill-Sachs and Bankart lesions are typically associated with anterior dislocations. HAGL lesions are avulsions of the glenohumeral ligaments, often associated with anterior dislocations. Os acromiale is an anatomical variant.

Question 171

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which finding on a post-reduction physical exam of an anterior shoulder dislocation indicates successful reduction and suggests stability?

. Persistent apprehension with external rotation
. Restoration of a normal shoulder contour and full passive range of motion without pain
. Palpable crepitus during internal and external rotation
. Continued inability to actively abduct the arm
. A positive sulcus sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restoration of a normal shoulder contour and full passive range of motion without pain


Explanation

Correct Answer: BSuccessful reduction is indicated by the restoration of normal shoulder contour (loss of the anterior prominence of the humeral head), relief of severe pain, and the ability to achieve full or near-full passive range of motion without a 'block.' Persistent apprehension or instability signs (like a sulcus sign or continued apprehension with external rotation) suggest potential underlying pathology or incomplete reduction. Crepitus might indicate cartilage damage, and inability to actively abduct could suggest a rotator cuff tear or nerve injury, not necessarily unsuccessful reduction.

Question 172

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 70-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, plain radiographs show a concomitant fracture. Which fracture is MOST commonly associated with anterior shoulder dislocation in this age group?

. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Greater tuberosity fracture
. Surgical neck fracture of the humerus
. Bony Bankart lesion
. Clavicle fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater tuberosity fracture


Explanation

Correct Answer: BWhile Hill-Sachs and Bankart lesions are very common with anterior dislocations, in older patients, a greater tuberosity fracture is particularly common (up to 30% in some series) due to the weaker bone and the forces involved in the injury. The rotator cuff avulses a piece of the tuberosity during the dislocation. Surgical neck fracture is also possible but less frequent than greater tuberosity in direct association with dislocation. Clavicle fractures are less directly associated with glenohumeral dislocation mechanism.

Question 173

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old female presents to the clinic two weeks after successfully undergoing closed reduction of an anterior shoulder dislocation. She complains of persistent pain and is unable to actively abduct her arm past 45 degrees. Passive range of motion is full. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

. Axillary nerve palsy
. Recurrent anterior subluxation
. Massive rotator cuff tear
. Adhesive capsulitis
. Brachial plexus traction injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Massive rotator cuff tear


Explanation

In patients over the age of 40, anterior shoulder dislocations have a high association with acute rotator cuff tears. Persistent weakness and pain after reduction, with preserved passive motion, should immediately prompt evaluation for a torn rotator cuff.

Question 174

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals the anterior-inferior labrum is avulsed from the glenoid margin, but the scapular periosteum remains intact, allowing the labrum to roll medially and inferiorly down the glenoid neck. Which of the following describes this lesion?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. SLAP tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

An Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion is characterized by an intact anterior periosteum that displaces the avulsed labrum medially. Unlike a classic Bankart lesion, the periosteal sleeve is not completely disrupted.

Question 175

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old male with a history of multiple anterior shoulder dislocations presents for surgical evaluation. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with capsular shift
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Osteochondral allograft of the humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

For anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25%, isolated soft tissue repairs have unacceptably high failure rates. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard to restore anterior stability through the "triple effect" of bone augmentation and sling effect of the conjoint tendon.

Question 176

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with severe shoulder pain following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, his arm is locked in internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a 35% anteromedial humeral head defect. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and spica cast application
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Modified McLaughlin procedure
. Latarjet procedure
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Modified McLaughlin procedure


Explanation

For a locked posterior dislocation with an anteromedial head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs) involving 20-40% of the articular surface, a modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. This involves transferring the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis tendon into the defect to prevent engagement.

Question 177

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation, with normal internal rotation and normal abduction strength. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Triangular interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the terminal branch of the suprascapular nerve, causing isolated denervation of the infraspinatus (weak external rotation). Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 178

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability but no evidence of a Bankart lesion on initial imaging. An MRI arthrogram is obtained, revealing extravasation of contrast inferiorly forming a classic "J-sign." What is the diagnosis?

. SLAP lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. Buford complex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. HAGL lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) is characterized by the "J-sign" on an MRI arthrogram, which represents contrast leaking inferiorly through the avulsed capsule at the anatomic neck of the humerus.

Question 179

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden pop in his shoulder while performing heavy bench presses. On physical examination, he demonstrates weakness in internal rotation and an inability to lift his hand away from his lower back against resistance. Which of the following tendons is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus
. Subscapularis
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

The patient's mechanism of injury and positive Gerber lift-off test strongly indicate a subscapularis tendon tear. The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder and is heavily loaded during bench press exercises.

Question 180

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate wrestler presents with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and a 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In the setting of critical anterior glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), soft tissue stabilization alone (Bankart repair) has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer), is indicated to restore glenoid width and provide a sling effect.