Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, imaging reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical (10%) glenoid bone loss. The surgeon plans an arthroscopic Bankart repair. Which adjunctive procedure is most commonly performed to address the humeral head defect?

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability after multiple prior dislocations. A CT scan of the shoulder reveals a 27% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a subjective feeling of the shoulders "sliding out of place." Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign, positive apprehension at varying degrees, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the most appropriate initial management?

During a stabilization procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon elects to perform a "remplissage." This specific surgical technique is designed to address which of the following pathomorphological findings?

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. An MRI demonstrates isolated denervation and atrophy of the teres minor. Compression of a neurovascular structure in the quadrilateral space is suspected. What are the correct borders of this anatomic space?

Three weeks following an acute anterior shoulder dislocation, a 60-year-old male complains of continued weakness and an inability to bring his hand to his abdomen. You suspect a concomitant rotator cuff injury. Which of the following physical examination maneuvers would most specifically isolate the affected tendon in this scenario?

A 62-year-old male is incidentally found to have an asymptomatic, full-thickness, 1.5 cm supraspinatus tear on an MRI ordered for a suspected cervical spine issue. What is the most likely natural history of this rotator cuff tear if observed conservatively over the next 2 to 3 years?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. He has had 5 dislocations over the past year. Advanced imaging reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to minimize his risk of recurrent dislocation?

A 45-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled epilepsy presents with right shoulder pain following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Examination reveals the arm locked in internal rotation. A CT scan confirms a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with an associated reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 28-year-old professional weightlifter presents with chronic, deep-seated posterior shoulder pain and a sensation of 'clunking' during overhead lifts, particularly during bench press. He denies any acute traumatic event but reports a gradual onset of symptoms over 6 months. Physical examination reveals a positive Jerk test and apprehension with combined adduction, internal rotation, and flexion. An MR Arthrography (MRA) is performed.

Based on the clinical presentation and the provided MRA image, which of the following soft tissue lesions is MOST likely present and contributes significantly to his symptoms?

A 40-year-old male presents with recurrent posterior shoulder subluxations following a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) 6 months prior. Conservative management has failed. Pre-operative imaging includes a 3D CT scan, which reveals significant posterior glenoid bone loss. The image below is representative of such a finding.

Given the finding of significant posterior glenoid bone loss, which of the following surgical interventions is MOST appropriate to restore glenoid articular arc and prevent recurrence?

A 25-year-old male presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain and a feeling of instability. He is a competitive swimmer and experiences symptoms during freestyle strokes. MRI reveals a posterior labral tear and mild capsular laxity. A CT scan is also performed to rule out bony pathology. The CT scan shows normal glenoid retroversion and no significant glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial surgical management for this patient?

A 29-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with persistent posterior shoulder pain and a sense of instability, particularly during the follow-through phase of his pitching motion. He has failed extensive non-operative management. MRI reveals a subtle posterior-inferior labral avulsion with associated partial delamination of the glenoid cartilage, but no discrete labral tear. A 3D CT scan shows no significant glenoid bone loss or engaging reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. Given these findings, which specific soft tissue lesion is MOST likely present and requires careful identification during arthroscopy?

A 42-year-old male presents with a chronic, unreduced posterior glenohumeral dislocation following a motor vehicle accident 3 months prior. He has significant pain and functional limitation. Pre-operative imaging reveals a large, engaging reverse Hill-Sachs lesion occupying approximately 30% of the humeral head articular surface, in addition to a posterior labral tear. The glenoid morphology is otherwise normal. Which of the following surgical strategies is MOST appropriate to address the engaging reverse Hill-Sachs lesion in this scenario?

A 22-year-old collegiate linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan demonstrates 22% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent instability?

In the evaluation of anterior shoulder instability, the "glenoid track" concept is utilized to determine the risk of engagement of a Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following defines an "off-track" lesion?

During an arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon visualizes the anterior labrum healed medially along the scapular neck. Which of the following best describes this lesion?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he has weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which nerve is most likely injured?

A 25-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes an arthroscopic stabilization. He is noted to have 10% glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?