This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 101
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old man presents with severe shoulder pain and restricted external rotation 15 years after an open anterior shoulder stabilization (Putti-Platt procedure). Radiographs reveal severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism leading to this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive over-tightening of the anterior capsule and subscapularis
Explanation
Capsulorrhaphy arthropathy is a known complication of non-anatomic anterior stabilization procedures like the Putti-Platt, where excessive tightening of the anterior structures leads to obligatory posterior humeral head subluxation and subsequent arthritis.
Question 102
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old weightlifter presents with acute weakness in internal rotation and a positive bear-hug test after a heavy bench press. MRI confirms an isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. What associated structural pathology is most critical to evaluate and address during surgical repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial subluxation or dislocation of the long head of the biceps
Explanation
The subscapularis tendon, along with the coracohumeral ligament, forms the medial portion of the biceps pulley. A full-thickness subscapularis tear often compromises the pulley, leading to medial subluxation or dislocation of the biceps tendon.
Question 103
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows a loss of 25 degrees of internal rotation compared to the contralateral side, and pain is provoked with the shoulder abducted and externally rotated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal impingement with glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)
Explanation
Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes when the posterosuperior rotator cuff impinges against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum in maximum abduction and external rotation. It is strongly associated with GIRD and posterior capsular contracture.
Question 104
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old athlete with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes preoperative evaluation.
Imaging reveals an anterior glenoid bone loss of approximately 30%. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
Explanation
In the setting of significant anterior glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), soft-tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has a high failure rate. A bone-block augmentation, such as the Latarjet procedure, is indicated to restore glenoid tracking.
Question 105
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is primarily affected by this cyst?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Infraspinatus
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch specifically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus, leading to isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle.
Question 106
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a locked shoulder after suffering a grand mal seizure.
He holds his arm in internal rotation and cannot externally rotate. Which of the following osseous lesions is most likely to be present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anteromedial humeral head impaction (Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion)
Explanation
Seizures classically cause posterior shoulder dislocations due to the overpowering strength of the internal rotators. This results in an impaction fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head, known as a reverse Hill-Sachs or McLaughlin lesion.
Question 107
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old laborer undergoes a massive, irreparable rotator cuff repair using a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. For this transfer to be biomechanically effective and successful, which of the following prerequisites MUST be met?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. An intact and functional subscapularis
Explanation
A latissimus dorsi transfer relies on restoring the anterior-posterior force couple. Therefore, a functional and intact anterior cuff (subscapularis) is an absolute prerequisite for a successful outcome.
Question 108
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old woman with a massive rotator cuff tear undergoes repair. Six weeks postoperatively, she exhibits profound, isolated weakness of the anterior deltoid and reports a sudden inability to actively elevate her arm after a minor fall, although passive elevation is preserved. An axillary nerve injury is ruled out. What surgical complication most likely occurred?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avulsion of the deltoid origin from the acromion
Explanation
Isolated, profound loss of active elevation with preserved passive motion following an open or mini-open cuff repair can indicate failure of the deltoid repair (avulsion from the acromion), a devastating complication resulting in catastrophic anterior deltoid failure.
Question 109
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A patient is evaluated for Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis). Which of the following clinical patterns is the classic hallmark of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acute, severe shoulder pain lasting days to weeks, followed by patchy muscle weakness and atrophy
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome is characterized by the sudden onset of intense, unremitting shoulder and arm pain that lasts for a few weeks, followed closely by weakness, paralysis, and atrophy of the upper extremity muscles (often the rotator cuff or periscapular muscles).
Question 110
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Which of the following choices represents the correct order of layers in the direct insertion of a human ligament:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bone, calcified fibrocartilage, uncalcified fibrocartilage, and ligament
Explanation
Histologic sectioning of a direct ligament insertion of rotator cuffs in cadavers demonstrates 4 discrete layers: ligament, uncalcified fibrocartilage layer, calcified fibrocartilage layer, and bone. Some authors have suggested that the uncalcified fibrocartilage ensures that the tendon fibers do not compress at a hard tissue interface.
Question 111
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a large engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is best managed surgically by which of the following procedures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Remplissage procedure combined with Bankart repair
Explanation
An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion can lever the humeral head out of the glenoid, causing recurrent instability. The remplissage procedure fills the defect with the infraspinatus tendon and capsule, preventing engagement when combined with a Bankart repair.
Question 112
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old man sustains a first-time anterior shoulder dislocation. After a successful closed reduction, he is noted to have profound weakness in active external rotation and abduction. What is the most likely structural pathology causing this weakness?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Massive rotator cuff tear
Explanation
In patients older than 40-50 years, weakness in external rotation and abduction following an anterior shoulder dislocation is highly suspicious for an acute rotator cuff tear. This should be evaluated promptly with an MRI.
Question 113
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old man undergoes arthroscopic Bankart repair for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. To prevent a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion from engaging the anterior glenoid rim, the surgeon performs a "remplissage". What does this procedure entail?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tenodesis of the infraspinatus and posterior capsule into the humeral head defect
Explanation
The remplissage procedure addresses an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion by filling the defect in the posterolateral humeral head with the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule. This converts an intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one.
Question 114
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals a bony Bankart lesion with 25% glenoid bone loss. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate to restore stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
In patients with recurrent anterior instability and significant glenoid bone loss (typically greater than 20-25%), a coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure) is indicated. Soft tissue arthroscopic Bankart repair alone carries an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting.
Question 115
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals an anterior labral tear and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures specifically addresses the engaging Hill-Sachs defect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Remplissage procedure
Explanation
The Remplissage procedure involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule into the Hill-Sachs defect. This essentially converts an intra-articular defect to an extra-articular one, preventing it from engaging the anterior glenoid rim.
Question 116
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 26-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic anterior stabilization for recurrent shoulder dislocations. Intraoperatively, he is noted to have a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following adjunctive procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent anterior instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Remplissage procedure
Explanation
The Remplissage procedure involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule into the Hill-Sachs defect. This converts an intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one, preventing the lesion from engaging the anterior glenoid rim.
Question 117
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain. On examination, he has notable weakness in external rotation with the arm abducted to 90 degrees, demonstrating a positive hornblower's sign. Which rotator cuff tendon is predominantly pathological?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor
Explanation
A positive hornblower's sign indicates significant weakness of external rotation in abduction, which specifically isolates pathology of the teres minor muscle and tendon.
Question 118
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old man presents with a chronic, massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has severe external rotation weakness but an intact subscapularis. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore active external rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
Explanation
The latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears and an intact subscapularis. It helps restore active external rotation and forward elevation.
Question 119
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old baseball pitcher presents with a painful clunk in his shoulder during the late cocking phase of throwing. An MRI arthrogram reveals a superior labral tear extending into the long head of the biceps tendon anchor, causing instability of the biceps-labral complex. This represents which type of SLAP lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II
Explanation
A Type II SLAP lesion involves detachment of the superior labrum and the origin of the long head of the biceps tendon from the supraglenoid tubercle. This leads to distinct instability of the biceps-labral complex.
Question 120
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After closed reduction, an MRI shows an avulsion of the anterior labrum along with the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL). What is the specific name of this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bankart lesion
Explanation
A classic Bankart lesion is defined as an avulsion of the anterior-inferior labrum and the attached inferior glenohumeral ligament complex from the anterior glenoid rim. It is the primary essential lesion in anterior shoulder instability.
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