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Question 81

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following muscles is most responsible for deceleration of the arm during pitching:

. Deltoid
. Coracobrachilis
. Teres minor
. Long head of the biceps
. Short head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deltoid


Explanation

During the deceleration phase, the excess kinetic energy that was not transferred to the ball is dissipated by controlled deceleration of the upper extremity. The rotator cuff (primarily teres minor) is the principle decelerator and is susceptible to tensile failure from eccentric loading.

Question 82

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following conditions most often accompanies a dislocation of the longhead of the biceps tendon?

. Anterior instability
. Presence of a Buford complex
. Subscapilars tendon pathology or tear
. Hill-Sachs lesions
. Excessive glenoid anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior instability


Explanation

Although isolated ruptures of the biceps tendon have been described, most cases involving biceps tendon pathology are accompanied by rotator cuff injury. When computerized tomography arthrograms are performed on patients who have clinical criteria for isolated ruptures of the long head of the biceps, the incidence of isolated lesions decreases to 6%. Although primary bicipital tendinitis was recognized as a frequent cause of anterior shoulder pain in the 1950s, it is currently a diagnosis of exculsion that is made far less frequently.

Question 83

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and increased passive external rotation after a heavy fall. Examination reveals a positive belly-press test and an inability to maintain internal rotation against resistance. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Subscapularis
. Teres minor
. Biceps pulley

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A positive belly-press test and an abnormal increase in passive external rotation strongly indicate a subscapularis tendon rupture.

Question 84

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Examination reveals atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, but supraspinatus strength and bulk are perfectly normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve entrapment?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Coracoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch selectively denervates only the infraspinatus muscle, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Proximal entrapment at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 85

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability is found to have 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. An open Latarjet procedure is planned. During the surgical approach to the anterior glenoid, which muscle's tendon is classically split horizontally?

. Supraspinatus
. Subscapularis
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Pectoralis major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

During the Latarjet procedure, the subscapularis tendon and muscle belly are split longitudinally (horizontally relative to the fibers) at the junction of the upper two-thirds and lower one-third. This provides optimal access to the anterior glenoid neck.

Question 86

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a 20-degree loss of internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the most likely pathophysiology of his condition?
. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis
. Posterosuperior glenoid impingement of the undersurface of the rotator cuff
. Primary subacromial impingement secondary to a type III acromion
. Anteroinferior labral detachment causing gross instability
. Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterosuperior glenoid impingement of the undersurface of the rotator cuff


Explanation

This describes internal impingement, common in overhead athletes. It involves the undersurface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus impinging against the posterosuperior glenoid and labrum during extreme abduction and external rotation.

Question 87

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid. MRI demonstrates isolated fatty infiltration and atrophy of the teres minor muscle. The affected nerve is compressed in a space defined by which of the following boundaries?

. Teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), lateral head of triceps (lateral), long head of triceps (medial)
. Teres major (superior), latissimus dorsi (inferior), humerus (lateral), long head of triceps (medial)
. Subscapularis (anterior), teres major (posterior), humerus (lateral), short head of biceps (medial)
. Teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), humeral shaft (lateral)
. Infraspinatus (superior), teres minor (inferior), surgical neck of humerus (lateral), long head of triceps (medial)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), humeral shaft (lateral)


Explanation

Quadrilateral space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery. The boundaries are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).

Question 88

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the Latarjet procedure for anterior shoulder instability, the transferred coracoid process provides stability through a 'sling effect'. Which of the following structures is responsible for this dynamic sling effect?

. Pectoralis minor
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Short head of the biceps alone
. Conjoined tendon
. Subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Conjoined tendon


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure provides dynamic stability via the 'sling effect' of the conjoined tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) acting across the anteroinferior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

Question 89

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old volleyball player has persistent shoulder weakness. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compressing a nerve. Which of the following clinical findings is expected?

. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus
. Isolated atrophy of the teres minor
. Winging of the scapula with medial translation
. Loss of internal rotation strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branches to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus atrophy. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 90

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 50-year-old construction worker presents with weakness in internal rotation and a positive belly-press test following a lifting injury 8 months ago. MRI shows a massive, retracted, irreparable tear of the subscapularis with severe fatty infiltration. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate?

. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Pectoralis major transfer
. Teres major transfer
. Rhomboid major transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

The pectoralis major transfer is the standard tendon transfer used to reconstruct an irreparable subscapularis tear, providing an anterior vector to restore internal rotation and dynamic anterior stability.

Question 91

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old man complains of profound weakness in shoulder elevation and external rotation. Imaging reveals an irreparable massive tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with an intact subscapularis. There is no significant glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following tendon transfers is best indicated?

. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Pectoralis major transfer
. Biceps tenodesis
. Teres major transfer
. Pectoralis minor transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi transfer


Explanation

A latissimus dorsi (or lower trapezius) transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears (supraspinatus/infraspinatus) who have an intact subscapularis and lack advanced arthritis.

Question 92

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following physical examination tests is most specific for diagnosing a tear involving the upper border of the subscapularis tendon?

. Lift-off test
. Belly-press test
. Bear hug test
. O'Brien active compression test
. Jobe's empty can test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lift-off test


Explanation

The bear hug test is considered the most sensitive and specific test for detecting upper subscapularis tendon tears, which are often missed by the lift-off and belly-press tests that evaluate the mid and lower portions of the muscle.

Question 93

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability, critical glenoid bone loss often dictates the need for a bony augmentation procedure (e.g., Latarjet) rather than an isolated soft-tissue Bankart repair. The universally accepted threshold for 'critical' bone loss is greater than:

. 5% to 10%
. 10% to 15%
. 20% to 25%
. 35% to 40%
. 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5% to 10%


Explanation

Bone loss greater than 20% to 25% of the inferior glenoid width is considered critical. Soft tissue repairs in this setting have an unacceptably high failure rate, making bony augmentation the standard of care.

Question 94

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. The 'internal impingement' test is positive. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of this condition?

. Compression of the subscapularis tendon against the coracoid process
. Contact of the undersurface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus against the posterosuperior glenoid
. Fraying of the superior labrum from biceps traction
. Impingement of the greater tuberosity against the acromion
. Contracture of the coracohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Compression of the subscapularis tendon against the coracoid process


Explanation

Internal impingement typically occurs in overhead athletes during maximal external rotation and abduction (late cocking phase). It is caused by the articular surface of the posterior rotator cuff abutting the posterosuperior glenoid and labrum.

Question 95

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 23-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging reveals 12% anterior glenoid bone loss and a Hill-Sachs lesion that is determined to be 'off-track'. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Iliac crest bone grafting of the humerus
. Subscapularis tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

For patients with subcritical glenoid bone loss (typically <15-20%) but an engaging or 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion, an arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with a remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis) is the procedure of choice to prevent engagement.

Question 96

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression. Where is the cyst most likely located?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 97

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a physical examination for a suspected rotator cuff tear, the examiner places the patient's palm on their contralateral shoulder and asks the patient to resist an anteriorly directed force applied to the hand. What is this test, and which specific muscle portion does it evaluate?

. Belly-press test; lower subscapularis
. Lift-off test; upper subscapularis
. Bear hug test; upper subscapularis
. Hornblower's sign; teres minor
. Gerber's test; entire subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Belly-press test; lower subscapularis


Explanation

The Bear hug test evaluates the subscapularis and is particularly sensitive for tears of the upper portion of the subscapularis tendon. The belly-press test better isolates the lower subscapularis.

Question 98

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old bodybuilder feels a sudden 'pop' in his chest while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold contour and weakness in internal rotation. Which anatomical structure is most commonly ruptured in this scenario?

. Clavicular head of the pectoralis major at the muscle belly
. Sternal head of the pectoralis major at the humeral insertion
. Pectoralis minor at the coracoid process
. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Subscapularis at the lesser tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sternal head of the pectoralis major at the humeral insertion


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur in weightlifters (e.g., bench pressing) and typically involve the sternocostal head avulsing from its insertion on the proximal humerus.

Question 99

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

What is the most common cause of significant, permanent loss of external rotation following an open anterior shoulder stabilization procedure (such as a Putti-Platt or standard open Bankart)?

. Failure to repair the superior labrum
. Overtightening of the anterior capsule and subscapularis
. Iatrogenic injury to the axillary nerve
. Postoperative development of a loose body
. Improper placement of posterior portal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overtightening of the anterior capsule and subscapularis


Explanation

Historically, non-anatomic anterior stabilizations like the Putti-Platt intentionally shortened the subscapularis and anterior capsule, leading to an obligate loss of external rotation and subsequent posterior glenoid wear (capsulorrhaphy arthropathy).

Question 100

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old gymnast complains of deep, poorly localized shoulder pain during overhead routines. An MR arthrogram demonstrates a superior labral tear that propagates into the biceps anchor, causing instability of the biceps-labral complex. Based on the Snyder classification, what type of SLAP lesion is this?
. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II


Explanation

A Snyder Type II SLAP lesion involves detachment of the superior labrum and the origin of the long head of the biceps tendon from the glenoid, resulting in instability of the biceps-labral anchor.