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Question 21

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 28% defect of the anterior glenoid rim. The most appropriate surgical intervention to prevent recurrence is:

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Open inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In the setting of critical anterior glenoid bone loss (typically > 20-25%), a soft tissue repair (Bankart) has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet (coracoid transfer), is required.

Question 22

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a glenoid bone loss of greater than 20% on a 3D CT scan is best treated with which of the following procedures?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) is an indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet. Soft tissue repairs (Bankart) have an unacceptably high recurrence rate in the setting of critical bone loss.

Question 23

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following radiographic findings is most specific for diagnosing Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

. Center-edge angle < 20 degrees
. Alpha angle > 55 degrees on a frog-leg lateral radiograph
. Crossover sign on an AP pelvis radiograph
. Tonnis angle > 10 degrees
. Coxa profunda

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees on a frog-leg lateral radiograph


Explanation

An alpha angle > 55 degrees on a lateral or frog-leg lateral radiograph indicates a loss of normal femoral head-neck offset, which is characteristic of Cam-type FAI. The crossover sign is indicative of Pincer-type FAI (acetabular retroversion).

Question 24

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 68-year-old male presents with pseudo-paralysis of the shoulder and a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The subscapularis is intact. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic debridement and biceps tenotomy
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for older patients with massive, irreparable rotator cuff tears and pseudo-paralysis. It utilizes the deltoid to restore active elevation and joint stability.

Question 25

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When repairing an acute rupture of the pectoralis major tendon, to which anatomic location should the tendon be reattached to optimize biomechanical restoration?

. Medial to the bicipital groove
. Lateral to the bicipital groove
. At the lesser tuberosity
. At the coracoid process
. Superior to the subscapularis insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral to the bicipital groove


Explanation

The pectoralis major inserts onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove on the humerus. Anatomic repair lateral to the bicipital groove restores the normal length-tension relationship and biomechanics of the shoulder.

Question 26

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The internal snapping hip syndrome, characterized by an audible and palpable snap over the anterior hip with hip extension, is most commonly caused by which of the following?

. Iliotibial band over the greater trochanter
. Gluteus maximus over the greater trochanter
. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence
. Rectus femoris over the anterior inferior iliac spine
. Acetabular labral tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence


Explanation

Internal snapping hip syndrome is caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or the femoral head. External snapping hip involves the IT band or gluteus maximus snapping over the greater trochanter.

Question 27

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old overhead athlete presents with shoulder pain and weakness. On examination, he has a positive Hornblower's sign. Which muscle is most likely pathologically involved?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor


Explanation

Hornblower's sign evaluates teres minor pathology. It is positive if the patient is unable to hold the forearm in external rotation when the arm is abducted to 90 degrees.

Question 28

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The "peel-back" mechanism during the late cocking phase of overhead throwing is primarily responsible for the development of which shoulder pathology?

. Bankart lesion
. Hill-Sachs lesion
. SLAP tear
. Rotator cuff interval widening
. Subscapularis tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SLAP tear


Explanation

The peel-back mechanism occurs when maximal external rotation shifts the biceps vector posteriorly, placing torsional stress on the superior labrum and leading to Type II SLAP tears.

Question 29

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In treating massive, irreparable rotator cuff tears in patients without severe glenohumeral arthritis, a superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) primarily aims to achieve which biomechanical effect?

. Restore active internal rotation strength
. Prevent superior migration of the humeral head
. Directly reconstruct the subscapularis footprint
. Deepen the glenoid concavity to prevent anterior instability
. Replace the stabilizing function of the long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prevent superior migration of the humeral head


Explanation

Superior capsular reconstruction utilizes a graft to bridge the glenoid and greater tuberosity. This depresses the humeral head, prevents superior migration, and restores a stable fulcrum for the deltoid.

Question 30

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which specific radiographic view is considered the most sensitive for profiling the posterolateral humeral head to identify a Hill-Sachs lesion?

. True AP (Grashey) view
. Stryker notch view
. Scapular Y view
. Zanca view
. West Point axillary view

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stryker notch view


Explanation

The Stryker notch view is obtained with the patient supine and the arm elevated, directing the beam cephalad. It is specifically designed to profile the posterolateral humeral head and optimally identify Hill-Sachs defects.

Question 31

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis in patients with athletic pubalgia reveals:

. Pathology at the rectus abdominus in the majority of patients
. No abnormalities
. Labral pathology
. Nonspecific findings in 25% of patients
. Rectus abdominus pathology in 12% of patients and nonspecific findings in 90% of patients

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus abdominus pathology in 12% of patients and nonspecific findings in 90% of patients


Explanation

Although only 12% of patients with athletic pubalgia will demonstrate MRI abnormalities, more than 90% of patients will have nonspecific findings localized to the symptomatic side. Labral pathology is not a common finding in patients diagnosed with athletic pubalgia.

Question 32

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following arteries provides the primary blood supply to the supraspinatus tendon:

. Scapular circumflex artery
. Anterior humeral circumflex artery
. Suprascapular artery
. Thoracoacromial artery
. Posterior humeral circumflex artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular artery


Explanation

The suprascapular artery provides the primary vascular supply to the supraspinatus tendon. The vascularity predominates on the bursal side, while the articular side is hypovascular.

Question 33

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In an athlete with femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), a Cam lesion typically damages the hip joint by causing:

. Direct linear compression of the superior labrum
. Delamination of the adjacent acetabular articular cartilage during flexion
. Pincer-type global overcoverage
. Ligamentum teres hypertrophy and rupture
. Avulsion of the anterior inferior iliac spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Delamination of the adjacent acetabular articular cartilage during flexion


Explanation

A Cam lesion creates shear forces during hip flexion and internal rotation. This leads to outside-in delamination of the adjacent anterosuperior acetabular cartilage and secondary labral tearing.

Question 34

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A dancer complains of a painful, audible snap on the lateral aspect of the hip when moving from flexion to extension. Which anatomical structure is primarily responsible for this external snapping hip?

. Iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence
. Iliofemoral ligament snapping over the anterior femoral head
. Iliotibial band snapping over the greater trochanter
. Gluteus medius tendon snapping over the piriformis
. Sciatic nerve subluxation over the ischial tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band snapping over the greater trochanter


Explanation

External snapping hip (coxa saltans) is caused by the posterior border of the iliotibial band or the anterior border of the gluteus maximus snapping over the greater trochanter. Iliopsoas snapping causes internal snapping hip.

Question 35

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which specific clinical test helps differentiate athletic pubalgia from femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) in a hockey player with vague groin pain?

. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FADIR) test
. Resisted sit-up test
. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation (FABER) test
. Ober test
. Thomas test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resisted sit-up test


Explanation

The resisted sit-up test directly engages the rectus abdominis and is classically positive in athletic pubalgia. The FADIR test is sensitive for intra-articular hip pathology such as FAI and labral tears.

Question 36

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old dancer presents with a painful snapping sensation deep in her anterior groin when extending her hip from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. Which anatomical structure is most likely involved?

. Iliotibial band over the greater trochanter
. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence
. Rectus femoris over the anterior inferior iliac spine
. Gluteus maximus over the ischial tuberosity
. Hamstring origin over the ischial tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence


Explanation

Internal snapping hip (coxa saltans interna) is caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or the femoral head. It typically occurs when the hip is moved from a flexed, abducted, externally rotated position into extension.

Question 37

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old hockey player diagnosed with athletic pubalgia undergoes surgical repair of the posterior inguinal wall but continues to experience significant groin pain postoperatively. Which concomitant condition was most likely missed during the initial evaluation?

. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
. Osteitis pubis
. Lumbar radiculopathy
. Ischiofemoral impingement
. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)


Explanation

There is a highly recognized association between athletic pubalgia (core muscle injury) and femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Failure to diagnose and concomitantly treat FAI is a leading cause of persistent groin pain after athletic pubalgia surgery.

Question 38

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old female runner complains of a painful, audible click on the lateral aspect of her hip when climbing stairs. On physical examination, the snapping is reproduced when the hip is actively flexed and extended while in a lateral decubitus position. Which test is most useful for confirming the tight structures involved in this pathology?

. Thomas test
. FADIR test
. Ober test
. FABER test
. Dial test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ober test


Explanation

This patient has external snapping hip syndrome, caused by a tight iliotibial (IT) band snapping over the greater trochanter. The Ober test assesses IT band tightness, which is the primary underlying cause of this condition.

Question 39

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Internal snapping hip syndrome (coxa saltans interna) is most commonly caused by which of the following structures snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or femoral head?

. Iliotibial band
. Gluteus maximus
. Rectus femoris
. Iliopsoas tendon
. Sartorius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

Internal snapping hip is typically caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or the anterior femoral head. It is often reproduced with active extension of the flexed, abducted, and externally rotated hip.

Question 40

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A professional hockey player presents with chronic groin pain. Radiographs show symphyseal sclerosis and widening. A single-leg stance (flamingo) view shows 3 mm of superior translation of the pubis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Athletic pubalgia
. Adductor strain
. Osteitis pubis
. Femoroacetabular impingement
. Inguinal hernia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteitis pubis


Explanation

Symphyseal sclerosis, joint widening, and instability on single-leg stance (flamingo) views are hallmark radiographic findings of osteitis pubis. This is commonly seen in hockey players and distance runners.